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    <title>The Federalist Blog</title>
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    <id>tag:federalistblog.us,2010-01-09://2</id>
    <updated>2010-02-07T20:42:24Z</updated>
    
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<entry>
    <title>Alan Gura&apos;s brief in McDonald v. City of Chicago</title>
    <link rel="alternate" type="text/html" href="http://federalistblog.us/2010/01/alan_guras_brief_in_mcdonald_v_city_of_chicago.html" />
    <id>tag:federalistblog.us,2010://2.36</id>

    <published>2010-01-28T01:22:06Z</published>
    <updated>2010-02-07T20:42:24Z</updated>

    <summary> Like many pro constitutional gun ownership activists, Alan Gura&#8217;s brief for the petitioners in McDonald v. City of Chicago attempts to cast doubt on Slaughterhouse precedent that says the Fourteenth Amendment was not intended &#8220;as a protection to the...</summary>
    <author>
        <name>P.A. Madison</name>
        
    </author>
    
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        <category term="incorporation" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#category" />
    
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    <category term="alangura" label="Alan Gura" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
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    <content type="html" xml:lang="en" xml:base="http://federalistblog.us/">
        <![CDATA[<p><br /></p>

<p>Like many pro constitutional gun ownership activists, Alan Gura&#8217;s
<a href="http://www.chicagoguncase.com/wp-content/uploads/2009/11/08-1521-ts.pdf">brief</a> for the petitioners in <a href="http://www.chicagoguncase.com/wp-content/uploads/2009/06/mcdonald_cert_petition1.pdf">McDonald v. City of Chicago</a> attempts to cast doubt on Slaughterhouse precedent that says the Fourteenth Amendment was not intended <i> &#8220;as a protection to the citizen of a State against the legislative power of his own State.&#8221;</i> He wants to convince the court that their privileges or immunities doctrine is profoundly erroneous. However, did Slaughterhouse really get it 
wrong?</p>

<p>The written evidence strongly suggests that in fact Slaughterhouse did indeed get it right.</p>

<p>Firstly, the &#8220;privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States&#8221; had identical meaning as to the original phrase found under section two, article four that reads, &#8220;The Citizens of each State shall be entitled to all Privileges and Immunities of Citizens in the several States.&#8221; Rep. Bingham would refer to article four, section two as the &#8220;privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States&#8221; before he had used the phrase under the Fourteenth Amendment. If anyone has any doubt of this should consult with <a href="http://federalistblog.us/house-report-no-22-on-the-meaning-of-the-14th-15th-amendments.html">Bingham&#8217;s report</a> of the judiciary committee, dated January 30, 1871 in response to the memorial of Victoria C. Woodhull:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>The clause of the fourteenth amendment, &#8220;no State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States,&#8221; does not, in the opinion of the committee, refer to privileges and immunities of citizens of the United States other than those privileges and immunities embraced in the original text of the Constitution, article four, section two. The fourteenth, it is believed, did not add to the privileges or immunities before mentioned, but was deemed necessary for their enforcement as an express limitation upon the powers of the States.</p></blockquote>

<p>Secondly, these privileges or immunities were never understood to extend protection to citizens within their own State, and instead, merely followed a citizen of a State whenever they removed themselves to another State. This provided for a general National citizenship whenever the citizens of a State found themselves in another State. Bingham made this clear as words can make it clear when he said, &#8220;<b>This guarantee is of the privileges and immunities of citizens of the United States in, <u><i>not of</i></u>, the several States.</b>&#8221; (Cong. Globe, 39th Cong., 1st Sess., 158 (1866))</p>

<p>Influential Radical Republican, Samuel Shellabarger of Ohio, said in July of 1866 the privileges and immunities of citizens of the United States <i>&#8220;protects no one except such as seek to or are attempting to go either temporarily or for abode from their own State into some other.&#8221;</i></p>

<p>Enforcement of the privileges or immunities of United States citizens was squarely aimed at the organic law of Oregon that abolitionists felt violated the privileges or immunities of United States citizens that read, in part: <i>&#8220;No free negro or mulatto, not residing in this State at the adoption of this Constitution, shall ever come, reside or be, within this State, or hold any real estate, or make any contract, or maintain any suit therein &#8230;&#8221;</i> Abolitionists like 
Bingham viewed most free Negro&#8217;s as citizens of the United States. </p>

<p>Gura suggests the Fourteenth Amendment &#8220;left unaddressed the content of state citizenship.&#8221; If one pays close attention will find the Fourteenth Amendment did nothing to change the relationship between State and National citizenship. Bingham made that clear in <a href="http://federalistblog.us/house-report-no-22-on-the-meaning-of-the-14th-15th-amendments.html">House Report No. 22</a> when he wrote, <i>&#8220;The words &#8216;citizens of the United States,&#8217; and &#8216;citizens of the States,&#8217; as employed in the Fourteenth Amendment, did not change or modify the relations of citizens of the State and the nation as they existed 
under the original Constitution.&#8221;</i></p>

<p>I will cut this short by restating the ruling in Slaughterhouse in terms of the privileges or immunities of United States citizens under the Fourteenth Amendment was correct and is fully supported by the historical record. It is interesting to point out that when the 39th Congress attempted to enforce all of the privileges or immunities of United States citizens through legislation the mention of the Second Amendment was absent.</p>
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</entry>

<entry>
    <title>Misunderstanding the Fourteenth Amendment and the Incorporation Debacle</title>
    <link rel="alternate" type="text/html" href="http://federalistblog.us/2009/10/the_incorporation_debacle.html" />
    <id>tag:federalistblog.us,2009://2.34</id>

    <published>2009-10-12T10:52:19Z</published>
    <updated>2010-02-03T01:13:29Z</updated>

    <summary> Highlights: Rep. Bingham showed no intention of making the entire first eight amendments applicable between a State and its own citizens. Article four, section two and due process was the &#8220;bill of rights&#8221; Bingham spoke of under the Fourteenth...</summary>
    <author>
        <name>P.A. Madison</name>
        
    </author>
    
        <category term="14th amendment" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#category" />
    
        <category term="incorporation" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#category" />
    
    <category term="adamsonvcalifornia" label="Adamson v. California" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="billofrights" label="Bill of Rights" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="bingham" label="BINGHAM" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="fourteenthamendmenttotheunitedstatesconstitution" label="Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
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    <content type="html" xml:lang="en" xml:base="http://federalistblog.us/">
        <![CDATA[<div align="center">
<fieldset class="top">
<legend>Highlights:</legend>
<ul> 
<li>Rep. Bingham showed no intention of making the entire first eight amendments applicable between a State and its own citizens.</li>
<li>Article four, section two and due process was the &#8220;bill of rights&#8221; Bingham spoke of under the Fourteenth Amendment.</li>
<li>Rep. Bingham said the privileges and immunities embraces only those of the original text of the Constitution, article four, section two, and nothing had been added to them.</li>
<li>The Fourteenth Amendment did not change the relationship between citizens of 
a State and citizens of the United States, said Bingham.</li> </ul>
</fieldset>
</div>

<p><br /></p>

<p>Have you ever wondered why all the hullabaloo over judicially forcing the first eight amendments of the Federal Constitution to be applicable between a State and its own resident citizens even though the Constitution is completely silent on the subject? Can anyone for a moment ever imagine a single State &#8212; that alone ten or more States &#8212; willing to surrender their judicial authority over their own resident citizens within the limits of their State? There wasn&#8217;t a chance in a million of that ever happening.</p>

<p>Those who strenuously embrace incorporation do so under the same general views as did an early architect of incorporation, Justice Hugo Black, namely because, Rep. John Bingham of Ohio who was the chief sponsor of the Fourteenth&#8217;s first section, referred to the &#8220;bill of rights&#8221; and the case of Barron vs. The Mayor and City Council of Baltimore during the congressional debates. Black interprets this as Bingham intending <i>&#8220;to make the [entire] Bill of Rights, applicable to the states.</i>&#8221;</p>

<p>In Barron, the court had ruled the obvious, that the first eight amendments were not limitations on the power of the States: <i>&#8220;These amendments demanded security against the apprehended encroachments of the general government&#8212;not against those of the local governments.</i>&#8221; In his dissent in <a href="http://www.law.cornell.edu/supct/html/historics/USSC_CR_0332_0046_ZD.html">Adamson v. California</a>, Black writes:</p>

<blockquote class="main">
<p>My study of the historical events that culminated in the Fourteenth Amendment, and the expressions of those who sponsored and favored, as well as those who opposed, its submission and passage persuades me that one of the chief objects that the provisions of the Amendment&#8217;s first section, separately and as a whole, were intended to accomplish was to make the Bill of Rights, applicable to the states. With full knowledge of the import of the Barron decision, the framers and backers of the Fourteenth Amendment proclaimed its purpose to be to overturn the constitutional rule that case had announced. This historical purpose has never received full consideration or exposition in any opinion of this Court interpreting the Amendment.</p>
</blockquote>

<p>Analysis of the congressional debates refutes Black&#8217;s unfounded assertion that says there was an intention to reverse the ruling in Barron in order to make the entire first eight amendments applicable against a State and its own resident citizens. Rep. Bingham brought up the case of Barron vs. The Mayor and City Council of Baltimore not for any intended purpose to reverse its holding that the first ten amendments are not applicable against the States, but to show Congress had no power over the organic law of a State that denies &#8220;eight hundred thousand natural-born citizens of the United States&#8221; the right to due process of law:</p>

<blockquote class="main">
    <p>Mr. BINGHAM. The gentleman will allow me to ask him to point to a single decision. The gentleman says that the sufficiency of the Constitution has been tested and found in the past. I ask him now if he knows of a single decision in which the sufficiency of the Constitution to secure to a party aggrieved in his person within a State the right to protection by the prosecution of a suit, which by the organic law of the State was denied to him, has ever been affirmed, either by Federal statute or Federal decision, or whether the nation has not been dumb in the presence of the <u>organic act of a State</u> which declares that <u>eight hundred thousand natural-born citizens of the United States</u> shall be 
    <u>denied the right to prosecute a suit in their courts</u>, either for the vindication of a right or the redress of a wrong? Where is the decision? I want an answer.</p>
    <p>Mr. HALE. The gentleman will always get an answer when he asks me a question. It is never necessary for him to accompany his questions with a warning. I have not been able to prepare a brief for this argument, and therefore I cannot refer the gentleman to any case. As I never claim to be a very learned constitutional lawyer I have no hesitation in making the admission that I do not know of a case where it has ever been decided that the United States Constitution is sufficient for the protection of the liberties of the citizen. But still I have, somehow or other, gone along with the impression that there is that sort of protection thrown over us in some way, whether with or without the sanction of a judicial decision that we are so protected. Of course, I may be entirely mistaken in all this, but I have certainly somehow had that impression.</p>
    <p>Mr. ELDRIDGE. I wish to know if the gentleman from Ohio [Mr. BINGHAM] has found or heard of a case in which the Constitution of the United States has been pronounced to be insufficient?</p>
    <p>Mr. HALE. I would rather leave these gentlemen to answer one another at some other time, if it will answer their purposes as well. </p>
    <p>Mr. BINGHAM. I beg leave to say that I am ready to answer the gentleman now, and to produce such a decision [Barron], whether the gentleman from New York is or is not.</p>
    <p>Mr. HALE. This is no doubt a very interesting side issue; but the gentlemen will pardon me if I prefer to go on with my own speech now, and leave them to make theirs in proper order.<sup>1</sup></p>
</blockquote>

<p>The following day Rep. Bingham draws attention to Barron in response to his own question from the day before:</p>

<blockquote class="main">
    <p>Mr. HALE. If he is relating what took place in the debate.</p>
    <p>Mr. BINGHAM. I am relating what I asked the gentleman yesterday.</p>
    <p>Mr. HALE. In the debate?</p>
    <p>Mr. BINGHAM. Yes, sir, in the debate. A gentleman [Mr. ELDRIDGE] on the other side interrupted me and wanted to know if I could cite a decision showing that the power of the Federal Government to enforce in the United States courts the bill of rights under the articles of amendment to the Constitution had been denied. I answered that I was prepared to introduce such decisions; and that is exactly what makes plain the necessity of adopting this amendment. Mr. Speaker, on this subject I refer the House and the country to a decision of the Supreme Court, to be found in 7 Peters, 247, in the case of Barron vs. The Mayor and City Council of Baltimore, involving the question whether the provisions of the fifth article of the amendments to the Constitution are binding upon the State of Maryland and to be enforced in the Federal courts.<sup>2</sup></p>
</blockquote>

<p>It turns out Bingham&#8217;s only direct reference to Barron in the year 1866 was solely to answer his own question of whether an organic State law that denies prosecuting a suit in State court to <u>citizens of the United States</u> could be remedied in federal courts and not to show any deliberate intention to make the entire first eight amendments applicable between a State and its own citizens. Moreover, Bingham had pointed out in a speech on March 31, 1871 that <i>&#8220;it was decided, <b>and rightfully</b>, that these [first eight] amendments, defining and protecting the rights of men and citizens, were only limitations on the power of Congress, not on the power of the States.&#8221;</i> Not something someone would say if they were unhappy with the fact it had been decided the amendments were not limitations against the States (some have argued that Bingham felt Barron was wrongly decided).</p>

<p>Bingham showed no negative concern over the fact the first eight amendments had been decided to not be limitations against the States in a January 30, 1871 <a href="http://federalistblog.us/house-report-no-22-on-the-meaning-of-the-14th-15th-amendments.html">House Judiciary Committee Report</a> he authored as chairman:</p>

<blockquote class="main">
    <p>It had been judicially determined that the first Eight Amendments of the Constitution were not limitations on the power of the States, <u>and it was apprehended that the same might be held of the provision of the second section, fourth article.</u> To remedy this defect of the Constitution, the express limitations upon the States contained in the first section of the fourteenth amendment, together with the grant of power in Congress to enforce them by legislation, were incorporated in the Constitution.<sup>3</sup></p>
</blockquote>

<p>Here Bingham makes clear the &#8220;defect&#8221; the Fourteenth Amendment sought to remedy was not to change the fact the first eight amendments were not enforceable against the States, but to remedy the defect of a missing enforcement provision for the privileges and immunities of United States citizens. Two months later on March 31, he suggested during debates on a very partisan anti-KKK bill that the first eight amendments were a limitation against the States through the privileges and immunities of United States citizens as distinguished from citizens of a State:</p>
]]>
        <![CDATA[<blockquote class="main">
    <p>Mr. Speaker, that the scope and meaning of the limitations imposed by the first section, Fourteenth Amendment of the constitution may be more fully understood, permit me to say that the privileges and immunities of citizens of the United States, <u>as contradistinguished from citizens of a State</u>, are chiefly defined in the first Eight Amendments to the Constitution of the United States. Those eight amendments are as follows: [Quotes the eight amendments here.] These eight articles I have shown never were limitations upon the power of the States, until made so by the fourteenth amendment.<sup>4</sup></p></blockquote>

<p>For citizens of a State under their own constitutions there isn&#8217;t anything in these Bingham remarks to get excited over. You don&#8217;t make a distinction between citizens of a State and citizens of the United States if there is no important distinction between the two when it comes to privileges or immunities. Incidentally, Bingham was fond of referring to article four, section two as the <i><b>&#8220;privileges and immunities of citizens of the United States,&#8221;</b></i>  and thus, it is clear the language under the Fourteenth Amendment that no State shall <i>&#8220;abridge the privileges or immunities of the citizens of the United States&#8221;</i> was no different in meaning then under article four. <sup>(see 16)</sup></p>

<p>In May of 1868 Bingham points out the Fourteenth Amendment&#8217;s privileges and immunities allows Congress to enforce the same restrictions that was placed on the State of Missouri in 1821, to wit, that Missouri&#8217;s constitution should <i>&#8220;never be construed to authorize the passage of any law, and no law shall ever be passed in conformity thereto, by which <u>any citizen of either of the States of the Union</u> shall be excluded from the enjoyment of privileges or immunities to which such citizens are entitled under the Constitution of the United States.&#8221; (6 U.S. Statutes at Large, 645)</i><sup>5</sup></p>

<p>Moreover, there is a significant factual problem with these Bingham remarks that needs pointing out: Bingham wrote two months earlier in House Report No. 22 that the Fourteenth Amendment does not <i>&#8220;<b>refer to privileges and immunities of citizens of the United States other than those privileges and immunities embraced in the original text of the Constitution, article four, section two,</b></i>&#8221; and the Fourteenth Amendment <i>&#8220;<b>did not add to the privileges or immunities before mentioned.</b></i>&#8221;<sup>6</sup></p>

<p>The problem is this: The privileges and immunities of United States citizens under section two of the fourth article was never understood to have anything to do with any of the first eight amendments by either the founders, scholars or the courts. In fact, there were no bill of rights under the U.S. Constitution when the privileges and immunities of United States citizens was finally adopted under article four, section two, and when the first eight amendments became part of the Constitution, and no one claimed they had become privileges or immunities of United States citizens. For there to be any validity to these 1871 Bingham remarks he would had to have specifically declared in writing under section one of the Fourteenth Amendment that all of the first eight amendments are now privileges or immunities belonging not only to United States citizens, but also citizens of the States to have any far reaching affect. </p>

<p>However, two months earlier Bingham and fellow members of the House Judiciary Committee said that never happened because the Fourteenth Amendment &#8220;did not add to the privileges or immunities.&#8221; No doubt the judiciary committee was speaking the truth in H.R. Report No. 22 because the Fourteenth Amendment does not address other provisions of the bill of rights other than article four, section two and due process. Senator Howard did suggest the first eight amendments <i>should</i> be included in the privileges or immunities of United States citizens but did not endorse that recommendation nor made any claim that in fact they were included. Additionally, Howard says:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>I have recited, some by the first eight amendments of the Constitution; and it is a fact well worthy of attention that the course of decision of our courts and the present settled doctrine is, that all these immunities, privileges, rights, thus guarantied by the Constitution or recognized by it, are secured to the citizen solely as a citizen of the United States and as a party in their courts.<sup>7</sup></p></blockquote> 
<p>The interesting thing is Sen. Howard made no attempt to say this would change under the proposed Fourteenth Amendment, especially between citizens and their own State of residence. The New York Times on November 15, 1866, wrote of the Fourteenth Amendments privileges and immunities clause: <i>&#8220;This is intended for the enforcement of the Second Section of the Fourth Article of the Constitution, which declares that &#8216;the citizens of each State shall be entitled to all the privileges and immunities of the citizens in the several States.</i>&#8217;&#8221;</p>

<p>Bingham remarked in February of 1866 that the <i>&#8220;<b>existing amendments are not applicable to and do not bind the States, they are nevertheless to be enforced and observed in States.</b></i>&#8221;<sup>8</sup> At the time Bingham felt the Fourteenth Amendment might make it possible to enforce the oath of State judges and lawmakers:</p>

<blockquote class="main">
    <p>The oath, the most solemn compact which man can make with his Maker, was to bind the State Legislatures, executive officers, and judges to sacredly respect the Constitution and all the rights secured by it. And yet there is still another provision lest a State Legislature, with the approval of a State Executive, should, in disregard of their oath, invade the rights of any citizen or person by <u>unjust legislation</u>, violative alike of the Constitution and the rights secured by it, which is very significant and not to be overlooked, which is, &#8220;And the judges of every State shall be bound by the Constitution of the United States, anything in the constitution and laws of any State to the contrary notwithstanding.&#8221;<sup>9</sup></p></blockquote>

<p>This would be a weak argument if Bingham was suggesting State officers and judges were forced to recognize limitations imposed only upon Congress &#8212; which means he probably were speaking of article four, section two as the rights State legislatures were obligated to recognize. Moreover, he can be found referring to article four, section two in speeches as a standalone bill of rights (see below). </p>

<p>What was always the understanding of the meaning privileges or immunities of United States citizens?</p>

<p>Chancellor Kent (2 Commentaries, page 71) says: <i>&#8220;If they [citizens of the United States] remove from one State to another they are entitled to the privileges that persons of the same description are entitled to in the State to which the removal is made, and to none other.&#8221; </i> He also says these do not extend to citizens of their own State but only those citizens who <i>&#8220;<b>remove from one State to another.</b>&#8221;
</i> </p>

<p>In other words, only when a citizen of a State removes himself does a National citizenship follow and not beforehand because he is only a citizen of a State wherein he resides. Bingham explains this removal does not mean a transfer of laws from one State to another:</p>

<blockquote class="main">
    <p>The gentleman will pardon me. The amendment is exactly in the language of the Constitution; that is to say, it secures to the citizens of each of the States all the privileges and immunities of citizens of the several States. It is not to transfer the laws of one State to another State at all. It is to secure to the citizens of each State all the privileges and immunities of citizens of the United States in the several States. If the State laws do not interfere, those immunities follow under the Constitution.<sup>10</sup> </p></blockquote>

<p>Every citizen has certain universal privilege or immunity due to being a citizen, such as an absolute right to live (personal security), personal liberty, and the right to acquire and enjoy property. Others include the right to make and enforce contracts, to purchase, hold, and enjoy property, and to share the benefit of laws for the security of person and property. These are the rights of citizenship in all of the States and means no State can discriminate in these fundamentals protections of citizenship because someone may be a citizen of a different State or race. </p>

<p>Many wrongly assume that when Bingham spoke of a &#8220;bill of rights&#8221; he must have been speaking of the entire first eight amendments, and this of course is demonstratively false. The privileges or immunities of United States citizens and due process of law were a &#8220;bill of rights&#8221; in their own separate right. Rep. Bingham refers to the privileges or immunities of United States citizens under article four, section two and due process &#8212; both clearly incorporated under the Fourteenth Amendment as the &#8220;bill of rights&#8221; Bingham was addressing: </p>

<ul type="circle">
    <li>
    <p>&#8220;Gentlemen admit the force of the provisions in the bill of rights, that the citizens of the United States shall be entitled to all the privileges and immunities of citizens of the United States in the several Slates, and that no person shall be deprived of life, liberty; or property without due process of law.&#8221;<sup>11</sup></p></li>
    <li>
    <p>&#8220;What more could have been added to that instrument to secure the enforcement of these provisions (privileges and immunities of United States citizens) of the bill of rights in every State, other than the additional grant of power which we ask this day? Nothing at all.&#8221;<sup>12</sup></p></li>
    <li>
    <p>&#8220;[W]e are not opposed to the bill of rights that all shall be protected alike in life, liberty, and property; we are only opposed to enforcing it by national authority, even by the consent of the loyal people of all the States.&#8221;<sup>13</sup></p></li>
    <li>
    <p>&#8220;But I feel that I am justified in saying, in view of the text of the Constitution of my country, in view of all its past interpretations, in view of the manifest and declared intent of the men who framed it, the enforcement of the bill of rights, touching the life, liberty, and property of every citizen of the republic within every organized State of the Union &#8230;&#8221;<sup>14</sup></p>
    </li>
</ul>
<p>It should be evident that when he speaks of the &#8220;bill of rights&#8221; he isn&#8217;t referring to entire first eight amendments of the U.S. Constitution. I should point out once more that the rights to protection of life, liberty and property was considered a privilege of United States citizens under article four, section two which probably explains why Bingham felt the Constitution was meant to enforce the bill of rights &#8212; that is &#8212; article four, section two.</p>

<p>House Judiciary Committee chairman, James F. Wilson of Iowa, understood what bill of rights Bingham sought to enforce: <i>&#8220;I find in the bill of rights which the gentleman (Bingham) desires to have enforced by an amendment to the Constitution that &#8216;no person shall be deprived of life, liberty, or property without due process of law.&#8217;&#8221;</i> Wilson mentions no other provisions found in any of the first eight amendments.</p>

<p>Bingham never once pointed out the entire first eight amendments when speaking of the bill of rights in the year 1866, only article four, section two and due process. No doubt if he truly intended to make the entire first eight amendments applicable between a State and its resident citizens he would had clearly indicated that intent &#8212; especially in the absence of any legal theory that said the privileges and immunities of United States citizens included any or all of the first eight amendments against State denial. Of course, had he said it was the intention to make the first eight amendments applicable against a State and its own resident citizens would had the same chance of being ratified by two or more States as you being killed from the impact of an asteroid.</p>

<p>On the other hand, there was a good chance of ratifying a proposition that simply enforces what already was found under the original Constitution, namely, protecting citizens of the United States (read: newly emancipated black citizens) in their privileges and immunities whenever they go from State to another. One of the most profound statements Bingham may had made in regards to the Fourteenth Amendment can be found in House Report No. 22 where he wrote the <i>&#8220;<b>words &#8216;citizens of the United States,&#8217; and &#8216;citizens of the States,&#8217; as employed in the Fourteenth Amendment, did not change or modify the relations of citizens of the State and the nation as they existed under the original Constitution.</b></i>&#8221;<sup>15</sup></p>

<p>In other words, the Fourteenth Amendment did not replace State citizenship with National citizenship. Bingham pointed out this absolute truth before and after the adoption of the Fourteenth Amendment when describing the privileges and immunities of United States citizens: <i>&#8220;<b>This guarantee is of the privileges and immunities of citizens of the United States in, <u>not of</u>, the several States.</b></i>&#8221;<sup>16</sup> </p>

<p>Again, he reinforces this point on February 28, 1666 by saying <i>&#8220;if you intend every citizen of every State shall in the hereafter <u>have immunities and privileges of citizens in the several States</u>, you must amend the Constitution.</i>&#8221; In simple English, he is simply saying it is only those citizens of a State who remove themselves to another who can claim these privileges or immunities as citizens of the United States. This is exactly how the privileges or immunities of citizens of the many States has always worked.</p>

<p>The evidence is overwhelming that the 39th Congress had no intention of protecting State citizens from their own laws and constitutions (Bingham considered State citizens under the protection of their own Constitution and laws<sup>17</sup>), but only United States citizens as such within any State of the Union. Members of Congress always made it clear it was not citizens under their own State constitutions they sought to protect, but citizens of one State within another State as Bingham makes clear here:</p>

<blockquote class="main">
    <p>By simply adding an amendment to the Constitution to operate on all the States of this Union alike, giving to Congress the power to pass all laws necessary and proper to secure to all persons&#8212;which includes every citizen of every State&#8212;their equal personal rights; and <u>if the tribunals of South Carolina will not respect the rights of the citizens of Massachusetts</u> under the Constitution of their common country, I desire to see the Federal judiciary clothed with the power to take cognizance of the question &#8230;<sup>18</sup></p>
</blockquote>

<p>Bingham asked Rep. Robert Hale of NY: <i>&#8220;<b>I respectfully ask him to inform us whence he derives the authority for supposing, if he does suppose, that any State has the right to <u>deny to a citizen of any other State</u> any of the privileges or immunities of a citizen of the United States.</b></i>&#8221;<sup>19</sup> Again, he says: &#8220;Who ever before heard that any State had reserved to itself the right, under the Constitution of the United States, to withhold from any citizen of the United States within its limits, under any pretext whatever, any of the privileges of a citizen of the United States, or to impose upon him, <u><b>no matter from what State he may have come</b></u>, any burden contrary to that provision of the Constitution which declares that the citizen shall be entitled in the several States to all the immunities of a citizen of the United States?&#8221;

Radical Republican, John Broomall of Pennsylvania, complained of the treatment of citizens of a State within another State:</p>

<blockquote class="main">
    <p>For thirty years prior to 1860 everybody knows that the rights and immunities of citizens <u>were habitually and systematically denied in certain States to citizens of other States</u>: the right of speech, the right of transit, the right of domicile, the right to sue, the writ of habeas corpus, and the right of petition.<sup>20</sup></p>
</blockquote>

<p>Indiana Governor, Oliver P. Morton, said the purpose of the Fourteenth&#8217;s first section was to prevent discrimination of citizens from other States: </p>

<blockquote class="main">
    <p>It has happened in times past that <u>several of the Southern States discriminated against citizens of other States</u>, by withholding the protection of the laws life and liberty, and denying to them the ordinary remedies in the courts for the vindication of their civil rights, and hence the adoption of this provision.<sup>21</sup></p>
</blockquote>

<p>As the reader probably can determine on their own, these discrimination charges against other State citizens had everything to do with those citizens who were primarily black. Generally, many States did not recognize people of color as citizens like some of the northern States had. This is why it was important to define who were citizens under the Fourteenth Amendment so no State law could recognize only white persons as citizens of the United States, leaving black citizens to be treated as though they were alien.</p>

<p>Bingham, like other Republicans, charged States with violating the rights of citizens during the congressional debates of 1866. It appears, however, these charges were not over a State violating the rights of its own resident citizens but of citizens of other States (citizens of the the United States). Example, Bingham often charged the State of Oregon with violating the rights of citizens.</p>

<p> The reason was under Sec. 4 of the Oregon Constitution there was the provision that read, <i>&#8220;No free negro or mulatto, not residing in this State at the adoption of this Constitution, shall ever come, reside or be, within this State, or hold any real estate, or make any contract, or maintain any suit therein</i> &#8230;&#8221; To Bingham, free blacks were citizens of the United States because they were born to parents who owed no allegiance to any foreign country, and the Oregon Constitution violated article four, section two of the U.S. Constitution that reads: &#8220;The citizens of each State shall be entitled to all privileges and immunities of citizens in the several States.&#8221;</p>

<p>Another example would be accusing the State of Georgia a number of times for violating the rights of citizens by throwing them in the penitentiary for teaching their fellow man (Indians) the gospel. Turns out they were South Carolina missionaries who had ignored Georgia&#8217;s law of trespass upon Indian land. These missionaries were set free once they promised not to violate the law anymore and return to South Carolina.</p>

<p>As it may well be apparent by now, the privileges and immunities of United States citizens have no effect on citizens of State within their own State of domicile. In this regard, the ruling in the infamous Slaughterhouse cases in limiting the application of the privileges and immunities to only citizens of the United States and not citizens of a State was correct because the opinion was fully supported by both the legislative history, the text and the long understanding of privileges or immunities of United States citizens under Article IV.</p>

<p><b>Due Process</b></p>

<p>Incorporation today is judicially accomplished through the &#8220;liberty of person&#8221; under the due process provision and not through the privileges and immunities of United States citizens, which is odd because no one ever suggested the liberty of person had anything remotely to do with fundamental rights found under any of the first eight amendments. Thomas Jefferson wrote in 1823 of the liberty of person under due process: </p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>There are certain principles in which the constitutions of our several States all agree, and which all cherish as vitally essential to the protection of the life, liberty, property and safety of the citizen. [One is] Freedom of Person, securing every one from imprisonment, or other bodily restraint, but by the laws of the land. </p></blockquote>

<p> Congress in 1868 passed a bill (&#8220;Rights of American Citizens in Foreign States&#8221;) highlighting the meaning of this &#8220;liberty of person&#8221; under &#8220;due process of law&#8221; as it had always been understood to mean: Freedom from unlawful physical detention or imprisonment. Of course, this &#8220;liberty of person&#8221; has always been protected by the great <i>writ of habeas corpus</i>, which had nothing to do with anything other than improper physical detention or imprisonment. Bingham had made it clear what was understood by the words <i>&#8220;due process of law</i>&#8221;:</p>

<blockquote class="main">
    <p>The gentleman read from the Magna Charta of England, that &#8220;no freeman shall be taken or disseized,&#8221; &amp;c., &#8220;but by the judgment of his peers and the law of the land;&#8221; forgetful of the fact that the words &#8220;no freeman&#8221; were words of limitation, and limited this great charter at the time it was adopted to one half the population of England, and forgetful also that these words of limitation were swept away by the Constitution of the United States, in which it is declared that &#8220;no person shall be deprived of life, liberty, or property without due process of law.&#8221;<sup>22</sup> </p>
</blockquote>

<p>There was no rational basis in fact for the court in <a href="http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/cgi-bin/getcase.pl?court=US&amp;vol=268&amp;invol=652">Gitlow v. People of New York</a> (1925) to say, <i>&#8220;[f]or present purposes we may and do assume that freedom of speech and of the press &#8230; are among the fundamental personal rights and &#8216;liberties&#8217; protected by the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment from impairment by the States.</i>&#8221; Under this deeply flawed assumption, any person could conceivably demand <i>habeas corpus</i> proceedings whenever they feel their freedom of speech is being infringed. Gitlow has provided future courts a blindfold to place over their eyes in order to follow this corrupt assumption over a cliff without ever questioning if there was any factual basis behind the <i>assumption</i>.</p>

<p>There is nothing found under the Fourteenth Amendment&#8217;s first section that would extend to Congress under section five any authoritative powers over the States because the first section consists only of &#8220;negative limitations&#8221; against State authority that requires no positive laws from Congress in order to be observed. In other words, the first section is a <i>law unto itself</i>. Bingham explains what would constitute a deprivation by the States:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>There are other negative provisions in the Constitution of the United States; for example, the express negative provision that no State shall pass any law impairing the obligation of contracts. By virtue of your judiciary act, as it has been in force from the foundation of the Government to this day, that limitation upon the power of the States is uniform, and whenever or where ever <u>any State has undertaken by legislative enactment or by constitutional provision</u>, if you please&#8212;I care not which&#8212;to impair the obligation of contracts, that wrong has, by the operation of your law, been righted.<sup>23</sup></p>
</blockquote>

<p>This suggests for there to be a violation of the Fourteenth&#8217;s first section there would have to first be some act of State authority to change the States Constitution or enact some law that not only would directly <i>deny</i> State protection in the laws of due process to some class of persons, or might administer its laws of due process by statute unequally in State courts (due process <i>is</i> the protection of laws that not only cannot be denied, but also must be <a href="http://federalistblog.us/2009/02/equal_protection_of_the_laws.html">equally administered</a>). Bingham said in the year 1871 that the Fourteenth Amendment provides security against <b><i>&#8220;the abuses of State authority,&#8221;</i></b><sup>24</sup> not against private or municipal government acts &#8212; or in other words &#8212; only those acts that are sanctioned and authorized under authority of the State.</p>

<p>Bingham&#8217;s close colleague, Rep. Samuel Shellabarger of Ohio, said the effect of the first section of the Fourteenth Amendment is a <i><b>&#8220;negation upon the power of the States, and that as the fifth section of that amendment only authorizes Congress to enforce the provisions thereof, therefore Congress has no power by direct legislation to secure the privileges and immunities of citizenship, because the provision in each section is in the form of a mere negation.&#8221;</b></i><sup>25</sup> The text of the Fourteenth Amendment certainly supports what Rep. Shellabarger says.</p>

<p>It was never proper in principal for any State to condemn anyone to death, imprison or confiscate their freehold property without the proceedings of the law of the land of the State that protects against <i> <u>arbitrary</u></i> acts of the State in depriving someone of life, liberty, or property. Citizens of a State do not send representatives to their Capitals to pass laws to deprive them of these laws of protection, but some States were known to withhold them against black citizens  of other States (Example: Oregon). However, what could be done if a State did indeed amended their constitution or passed some statute that did ignore the citizenship of people of color and withheld the protection (or unequal protection) of the laws? </p>

<p>Nothing could had been done until passage of the Fourteenth Amendment.</p>

<p>Saying a State deprives someone of the States laws of due process because some might feel a law is unfair or harsh, is not the same as a State withholding its laws of protection by direct authority of the State, which is the only concern of the first section.</p>

<p>For those States who did not practice arbitrary denial of the laws of protection before condemning anyone in life, liberty and property, the Fourteenth Amendment had no effect. Rep. Bingham confirms this when he told Rep. Robert Hale of New York that the proposed Fourteenth Amendment <i>&#8220;<u>under no possible interpretation</u> can it ever be made to operate in the State of New York while she occupies her proud present position.</i>&#8221; Additionally he says, it would apply only to States <i>&#8220;that have in their constitutions and laws today provisions in direct violation of every principle of our Constitution,</i>&#8221; which <i>&#8220;applies unquestionably to the State of Oregon.</i>&#8221;<sup>26</sup> </p>

<p>As already pointed out, the Oregon Constitution discriminated against black citizens of the United States by declaring they shall never <i> &#8220;come, reside or be, within this State,&#8221;</i> or hold any real estate, make or enforce contracts, etc. This isn&#8217;t to say a State cannot refuse anyone from their limits because Bingham had agreed in the past it was permissible under the Constitution for any State to say convicted felons, vagabonds or aliens shall not come within State limits. Indeed, there was nothing shocking about laws preventing foreigners from owning real estate or conducting business within State limits.</p>

<p>How do we know all of the above is the correct reading of the Fourteenth Amendment? We know because Bingham said at least half-dozen times in speeches before and outside of the House of Representatives that the Fourteenth Amendment takes away no right that ever belonged to the States or their citizens. Some examples:</p>

<ul type="circle">
    <li><p>&#8220;It (Fourteenth Amendment) takes from no State any right which hitherto pertained to the several States of the Union, but it imposes a limitation upon the States to correct their abuses of power, which hitherto did not exist within the letter of your Constitution.&#8221;<sup>27</sup></p> </li>
    <li><p>&#8220;The adoption of this proposed [fourteenth] amendment will take from the States no rights that belong to the the States.&#8221;<sup>28</sup></p></li>
    <li><p>&#8220;Do gentlemen say that by so legislating (enforcing the Fourteenth Amendment) we would strike down the rights of the State? God forbid. I believe our dual system of government essential to our national existence.&#8221;<sup>29</sup></p> </li>
    <li><p>&#8220;No right reserved by the Constitution to the States should be impaired &#8230;&#8221;<sup>30</sup></p> </li>
    <li>    <p>&#8220;I repel the suggestion made here in the heat of debate, that the committee or any of its members who favor this proposition seek in any form to mar the Constitution of the country, or take away from any State the right that belongs to it, or from any citizen of any State any right that belongs to him under that Constitution.&#8221;<sup>31</sup> </p></li>
<li><p>&#8220;[T]he Proposed amendment does not impose upon any State of the Union, or any citizen of the Union, any obligation which is not now enjoined upon them by the very letter of the Constitution.&#8221;<sup>32</sup> </p></li>
</ul>

<p>Federal interference with how citizens govern themselves in terms of their own laws and constitutions would be a denial of a right citizens of a State have long reserved for themselves. Therefore, Bingham is clearly addressing a States obligation towards non-discrimination of fundamental rights of citizenship between citizens of other States under Article IV, Section II.</p>

<p><b>Conclusion</b></p>

<p>The Fourteenth Amendment was, in principal, a desirable addition to the Constitution of the United States to protect newly emancipated freedmen after the war who were returning to former rebel States governed by pro-confederate men approved by President Johnson while taking away nothing from the States under the original Constitution. Without the Fourteenth Amendment there was nothing to stop a reorganized rebel States from ignoring citizenship of newly emancipated freedmen by withholding the protections of the laws of due process, to make and enforce contracts, prevent permanent domicile, etc.</p>

<p>However, it has been subjected to judicial abuse through an assumption that has gone very wrong through the court pretending the &#8220;liberty of person&#8221; secures fundamental rights, something the word &#8220;liberty&#8221; under due process was never understood to mean, or modified to mean by the framers. This has resulted in cracks and holes being formed in that division of sovereignty between State and Federal Governments, resulting in laws of cities, counties, police and schools coming within the purview of federal courts.</p>

<p>The Fourteenth Amendment incorporated what it says it incorporated, nothing more. It did not replace the bill of rights of State citizens with the Federal bill of rights. If it really had incorporated the entire first eight amendments against a State and its own citizens then there was no purpose for Congress to attempt to amend the Constitution with the Establishment Clause of the First Amendment in 1875 to apply against States. This attempt was not in response to the Slaughterhouse cases, but because of a request from President Grant and the understanding among members of Congress the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States had nothing to do with citizens of a State or any of the first eight amendments.</p>

<p>The truth of the matter is, loyal States of the Union felt they were simply giving &#8220;enduring effect&#8221; of the Civil Rights Bill of 1866 when ratifying the Fourteenth Amendment: &#8220;In its special application to the condition of the insurgent States, its adoption by Congress was designed to give certain and enduring effect to the provisions of the Act commonly called the Civil Rights Bill.&#8221; (Alexander H. Bullock, Massachusetts Governor, January 4, 1867) The Civil Rights Bill protected against <i><u>citizenship discrimination</u></i> between different classes of citizens (naturalized citizens, other State citizens) but did not prevent a State from discriminating between its own citizens. </p>

<p>Of the forty-seven sections of civil rights legislation passed by Radical Republicans, forty-two had either been repealed directly, or declared invalid by the Court. This included enforcement acts of the Fourteenth Amendment. Radicals, however, suffered an even worst fate than their Reconstruction Acts when they were voted out of power <i>en masse.</i></p>

<p>If the court wishes to continue with their incorporation nonsense they simply should insist on a constitutional amendment that puts everyone under the control of a single central government. Maybe then they could stop pretending to be enforcing constitutional law that never existed or, has no basis to exist.</p>

<p>&nbsp;</p>

<p><font size="1">Footnotes</font></p>

<p><font size="1">1. Cong. Globe, 39th, 1st Sess., 1064 (1866)<br />
2. Id. at 1089<br />
3. Cong. Globe, 41st, 3rd Sess., H.R. Report 22 (1871)<br />
4. Cong. Globe, 42nd 1st Sess., Appendix, 84 (1871) <br />
5. Cong. Globe, 40th, 2nd Sess., 2463 (1868) <br />
6. Cong. Globe, 41st, 3rd Sess., H.R. Report 22 (1871)<br />
7.Cong. Globe, 39th, 1st Sess., 2765 (1866)<br />
8. Id. at 1090 (1866)<br />
9. Id.<br />
10. Id. at 1095<br />
11. Id. at 1089<br />
12. Id. at 1090<br />
13. Id. at 1089<br />
14. Id. at 1290<br />
15. Cong. Globe, 41st, 3rd Sess., H.R. Report 22 (1871)<br />
16. Cong. Globe, 39th, 1st Sess., 158 (1866) <br />
17. Id. at 1292 (Bingham: &#8220;What is the limitation, sir? Simply this, that the care of the property, the liberty, and the life of the citizen, under the solemn sanction of an oath imposed by your Federal Constitution, is in the States, and not in the Federal Government. I have sought to effect no change in that respect in the Constitution of the country.&#8221; Bingham could not have sought anything stronger or very few, if any, States would have been willing to ratify.)<br />
18. Id. at 158<br />
19. Id. at 1089<br />
20. Id. at 1263<br />
21. Cincinnati Commercial, July 19, 1866<br />
22. Cong. Globe, 40th, 1st Sess., 542 (1867)<br />
23. Cong. Globe, 40th, 3rd Sess., 727 (1869)<br />
24. Cong. Globe, 41st, 3rd Sess., 1283 (1871)<br />
25. Cong. Globe, 42nd 1st Sess., Appendix, 153 (1871)<br />
26. Cong. Globe, 39th, 1st Sess. 1065 (1866)<br />
27. Cincinnati Commercial, August 27, 1866. Bingham speech at Bowerstown, Ohio, August 24, 1866.<br />
28. Cong. Globe, 39th, 1st Sess. 1090 (1866)<br />
29. Cong. Globe, 42nd 1st Sess., Appendix, 84 (1871)<br />
30. Id. at 85<br />
31. Cong. Globe, 39th, 1st Sess. 1088 (1866)<br />
32. Id. at 1034 </font></p>
]]>
    </content>
</entry>

<entry>
    <title>Feds think they have Eminent Domain Powers within States</title>
    <link rel="alternate" type="text/html" href="http://federalistblog.us/2009/05/congress_and_eminent_domain.html" />
    <id>tag:federalistblog.us,2009://2.33</id>

    <published>2009-05-08T09:08:26Z</published>
    <updated>2010-01-11T16:48:21Z</updated>

    <summary>The AP reports that the federal government will begin taking land from seven property owners so that a Flight 93 memorial can be built in time for the 10th anniversary of the 2001 terrorist attacks. &#8220;We always prefer to get...</summary>
    <author>
        <name>P.A. Madison</name>
        
    </author>
    
        <category term="eminent domain" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#category" />
    
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    <content type="html" xml:lang="en" xml:base="http://federalistblog.us/">
        <![CDATA[<p>The AP reports that the federal government will begin taking land from seven property owners so that a Flight 93 memorial can be built in time for the 10th anniversary of the 2001 terrorist attacks. &#8220;We always prefer to get that land from a willing seller. And sometimes you can just not come to an agreement on certain things,&#8221; said National Parks Service spokesperson Phil Sheridan.</p>

<p>One major problem: The Federal Government has no authority to condemn private property within a State no more than they do within, say, China. This means this is not an issue of law over the taking of property for just compensation but merely an act of unlawful usurpation. To exercise the power of Eminent Domain requires exclusive legislative powers, something that was withheld from national government within State limits.</p>

<p>Only way for the Federal Government to acquire property to build a monument would be as suggested under Section 8, Article I, <i>&#8220;to exercise like Authority over all Places purchased by the <u>Consent of the Legislature of the State</u> in which the Same shall be, for the Erection of Forts, Magazines, Arsenals, dock-Yards, and other needful Buildings.</i>&#8221; In other words, the Constitution recognizes Congress has no authority to take property as they please without first obtaining permission of the State Legislature and purchasing the property - just as would be true within another country.</p>

<p>When Washington D.C. needed drinking water, it took an act of the Maryland legislature in 1853 to approve and to condemn the land for the Washington aqueduct to be built upon. The court in Pollard&#8217;s Lessee v. Hagan noted, &#8220;<strong>the United States have no constitutional capacity to exercise municipal jurisdiction, sovereignty, or eminent domain, within the limits of a State or elsewhere, except in the cases in which it is expressly granted.</strong>&#8221; </p>

<p>Some may mistakenly point to Amendment V that reads, in part, &#8220;nor shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation&#8221; as evidence the framers might have envisioned the taking of property as an exercise of national sovereignty.The first Eight Amendments recognized only limitations of federal power and not of any powers delegated directly, or indirectly, to Congress. The Constitution was adopted without a so-called Bill of Rights because to federalists it did not make any sense to &#8220;declare that things shall not be done which there is no power to do.&#8221; Hamilton warned of falling into this trap by adopting a federal Bill of Rights:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p> They might urge, with a semblance of reason, that the Constitution ought not to be charged with the absurdity of providing against the abuse of an authority which was not given, and that the provision against restraining the liberty of the press afforded a clear implication that a right to prescribe proper regulations concerning it was intended to be vested in the national government.</p></blockquote>

<p>Scary what members of Congress and the courts &#8220;think&#8221; the Federal Government has authority to do nowadays under our Republican form of government. Let the State of Pennsylvania build the monument if they so desire.</p>
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    </content>
</entry>

<entry>
    <title>Gay Marriage: Iowa Supreme Court Wrong on the Law</title>
    <link rel="alternate" type="text/html" href="http://federalistblog.us/2009/04/gay_marriage_iowa_supreme_court.html" />
    <id>tag:federalistblog.us,2009://2.31</id>

    <published>2009-04-04T14:48:54Z</published>
    <updated>2010-01-11T16:48:20Z</updated>

    <summary>Updated 4/10/09 Reading through the unanimous, 69-page decision of the Iowa Supreme Court striking down the state&#8217;s 10-year-old ban on same-sex marriage, reads more as an advocacy for same-sex marriage than constitutional fact finding. While I do not have much...</summary>
    <author>
        <name>P.A. Madison</name>
        
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        <category term="gay marriage" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#category" />
    
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    <category term="newjersey" label="New Jersey" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="samesexmarriage" label="Same-sex marriage" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="supremecourtoftheunitedstates" label="Supreme Court of the United States" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    
    <content type="html" xml:lang="en" xml:base="http://federalistblog.us/">
        <![CDATA[<p><i>Updated 4/10/09</i></p>

<p><br />
Reading through the unanimous, 69-page decision of the Iowa Supreme Court striking down the state&#8217;s 10-year-old ban on same-sex marriage, reads more as an advocacy for same-sex marriage than constitutional fact finding. While I do not have much time to Blog on this case now, I will quickly point out deliberate and obvious factual errors the court used to invalidate Iowa&#8217;s same-sex ban.</p>

<p>The court declares the <i>&#8220;primary constitutional principle at the heart of this case is the doctrine of equal protection.</i>&#8221; The court assumes this doctrine of equal protection is found under Section VI of the Iowa Constitution that reads: &#8220;<i>All laws of a general nature shall have a uniform operation; the general assembly shall not grant to any citizen, or class of citizens, privileges or immunities, which, upon the same terms shall not equally belong to all citizens.&#8221;</i></p>

<p>The constitutional provision that all laws shall be general and of uniform operation does not require them to operate uniformly on all the people of the State, nor, when relating to cities, on all the cities of the State, but if a law is made to operate upon a particular condition as to persons or property, and is operative whenever and wherever the same conditions exist, affixing the same consequences, it is a general law in its operation even though it only operates in one of the conditions or classes specified. State ex rel. West v. Des Moines, 31 L.R.A. 186, 96 Iowa, 521. 65 N.W. 818. </p>

<p>The second section of the clause that reads, &#8220;<b><i>the general assembly shall not grant to any citizen, or class of citizens, privileges or immunities, which, upon the same terms shall not equally belong to all citizens,</i></b><i>&#8221;</i> has a specific and well understood meaning and was borrowed from the Indiana State Constitution of 1851, which had adopted the language with the following understanding during the State constitutional convention:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>The section which declares that the Legislature shall not bestow any title of nobility, nor confer hereditary distinctions, nor grant extraordinary privileges, was read a second time.</p>

<p>Mr. READ of Monroe moved to amend by striking out the words, &#8220;grant extraordinary privileges,&#8221; and inserting the following: &#8220;Nor grant to any citizen or class of citizens privileges and immunities which, upon the same terms, shall not belong equally to all citizens.&#8221; </p>

<p>Mr. READ said that his object in offering this amendment was to render the section more distinct and definite in its signification. It was not designed to Interfere with the rights of corporations, and had no reference whatever to a State Bank, nor would it affect any of the institutions of the State. He was convinced that such a principle as that embraced in the amendment should find a place in the Constitution. He had consulted a number of legal gentlemen on the subject, and they all agreed it was a sound principle. It was merely intended to prevent that which had been much complained of in this country, and which might be called class legislation. </p> </blockquote>

<p>Class legislation is one of those terms that today can generally mean whatever a person presents it to mean, but really never had anything to do with discrimination based on race, sex, age or religion. Essentially it meant giving a privilege to one or a few named individuals or companies while ignoring everyone else. It was namely in response to the outcry of granting the right of eminent domain to railroad companies. The granting of a exclusive liquor license only to a certain wealthy liquor magnet and no one else would also be considered class legislation because it excludes everyone else. </p>

<p>On the other hand, requiring $50,000 or more land ownership as a condition for granting a liquor license would not be class legislation because it is merely a condition and not a privilege being exclusively granted to one individual or company. Justice John Pettit, a delegate to the convention at the time, explained the proposed Indiana provision this way during the constitutional convention of 1851:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>This section applies to the future action of the Legislature. It declares that the Legislature shall not hereafter place one class of citizens upon a pedestal of fame and wealth, and trample another in the dust of ignominy and poverty. That is what this section provides for. &#8230; Well, sir, the section before us provides that no rights shall be given to one class of the community that are not given, upon the same terms, the same conditions, and under the same circumstances, to all.</p></blockquote>

<p>Same purpose was sought for the language during the Iowa constitutional convention of 1857. Future speaker of the Iowa House, John Edwards, who advocated for the insertion of the words from the Indiana Constitution, explained the meaning of the words this way during the Iowa convention:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>[I]ts object is contained in a nut shell, and is merely this: It is to prevent the General Assembly from granting any privileges or immunities to any citizen or class of citizens that it would not be willing to grant to any other citizen or class of citizens upon the same terms. It is to prevent the Legislature from granting <u>exclusive privileges</u> to any class of citizens.</p></blockquote>

<p>George Ells provided for the benefit of members of the Iowa Convention Webster&#8217;s difinition that &#8220;embraces all we claim for the word &#8216;privilege&#8217;&#8221;:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>A particular and peculiar benefit or advantage enjoyed by a person, company or society, beyond the common advantages of other citizens. A privilege may be a particular right granted by law or held by custom, or it may be an exemption from some burden to which others are subject. The nobles of Great Britain have the privilege of being triable by their peers only. Members of Parliament and of our Legislatures have the privilege of exemption from arrests in certain cases. The powers of a banking company are privileges granted by the Legislature.</p></blockquote>

<p>During the 1866 Nevada Constitutional Convention, identical language was proposed to be inserted into the Constitution that would have the following effect:  </p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>Mr. Nourse: I understand that the object of the section is to prevent such disgraceful proceedings as occurred in the last Legislature. &#8230; a prohibition of special legislation&#8212;that you shall not grant to John Smith and his associates, a charter to build a road here or there, but you may pass a general act, providing that persons who wish, may incorporate so and so, and thereupon, if you choose, may have the right of way across private property&#8212;may have the power to have it condemned to their own use by such course as may be prescribed by the Legislature; leaving the whole thing open to public competition, and not tied up to any right given specially, and irrevocably, to any favored corporation, like, for example, the Camden and Amboy Railroad in New Jersey.</p></blockquote>

<p>In Strange v. Board, etc., 173 Ind. 640, the Indiana Supreme Court confirmed the above:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>As we have shown, there may be classifications, and rights may be conferred upon some classes and not upon others. A familiar example is the conferring upon corporations and upon individuals, the right of eminent domain, and all that is required is that the privileges or rights conferred or liabilities imposed shall be the same to all who fall within the same class or are similarly situated, and that is an express recognition of the clause of our own Constitution (Section 23 which is identical to Iowa&#8217;s Section 6).  </p></blockquote>

<p>The Indiana Supreme Court in Morrison v. Sadler, 821 N.E.2d 15 (Ind. App. 2005) has already tackled the same issues (DOMA) as presented before the Iowa Supreme Court under identical constitutional language and held limiting marriage to opposite-sex couples does not violate the State Equal Privileges and Immunities Clause. The Indiana appellate court also pointed out that there &#8220;<i>is binding United States Supreme Court precedent indicating that state bans on same-sex marriage do not violate the United States Constitution.&#8221;</i></p>

<p>Thomas Cooley says: &#8220;Many states prohibit the intermarriage of white persons and negroes; and since the fourteenth amendment this regulation has been contested as the offspring of race prejudice, as establishing an unreasonable discrimination, and as depriving one class of the equal protection of the laws. Strictly, however, the regulation discriminates no more against one race than against another; it merely forbids marriage between the two. Nor can it be said to so narrow the privilege of marriage as practically to impede and prevent it. Race prejudice, no doubt, has had something to do with establishing this law, but it cannot be said to be so entirely without reason in its support as to be purely arbitrary. <u>The general current of judicial decision is, that it deprives a citizen of nothing that he can claim as a legal right, privilege or exemption.</u>&#8221;</p>

<p>The court demonstrated their incompetence in interpreting constitutional law when they wrote: &#8220;<b><i>Thus, the right of a gay or lesbian person under the marriage statute to enter into a civil marriage only with a person of the opposite sex is no right at all.</i></b><i>&#8217;&#8221;</i> Would disallowing marriage to &#8220;one man and one woman,&#8221; who are closely related also render marriage &#8220;no right at all&#8221;? Put a different way, would marriage be &#8220;no right at all&#8221; if closely related (brother and sister) gay or lesbian couples were disallowed by law? </p>

<p>If the answer is no (and this is the well-established answer), then neither can disallowing marriage between the same sexes would have no material effect on any right by law to marriage between opposite-sex partners. The court is simply grasping at straws here.</p>

<p><b>CONCLUSION</b></p>

<p>Why did I devote attention to the debates of both the Indiana and Iowa constitutional conventions? Because the Iowa Supreme Court uses textual and historical arguments when interpreting the Iowa Constitution. The court says the purpose of any constitutional inquiry is &#8220;<b><i>to ascertain the intent of the framers.</i></b><i>&#8221;</i> Redmond v. Ray, 268 N.W.2d 849, 853 (Iowa 1978). </p>

<p>The court relies on plain text that &#8220;give[s] the words used by the framers their natural and commonly understood meaning.&#8221; Howard v. Schildberg Constr. Co., 528 N.W.2d 550, 553 (Iowa 1995). The court will &#8220;also examine the constitutional history and consider &#8216;the object to be attained or the evil to be remedied as disclosed by circumstances at the time of adoption.&#8217;&#8221; Id. </p>

<p>When the constitutionality of a statute is merely doubtful, the Iowa Supreme Court will not interfere, as it must be shown that legislative enactments clearly, palpably and without doubt infringe upon constitutional rights before an attack will be upheld. State v. Jaeger, 249 NW2d 688 (Iowa, 1977).</p>

<p>Therefore, Iowa laws of marriage are neither class legislation nor does the law grant <u>exclusive</u> privileges or immunities to any one class at the exclusion of all other classes of citizens who meet the conditions of law for entering into marriage. Likewise, denial of SSM also operates equally on all couples who meet the condition of being same-sex and places no new burdens or special obligations upon them. </p>

<p>And finally: &#8220;If all laws were held unconstitutional because they did not embrace all persons few would stand the test.&#8221; City of Clinton v. Wilson, 257 Ill. 580; Hawthorn v. People, 109 id. 302.</p>

<p>UPDATE: I found some time today to update this on my way out the door, and also removed a few lines that could be misunderstood.</p>

<p><br />
Related: <a href="http://federalistblog.us/2009/02/equal_protection_of_the_laws.html">Historical Meaning Behind &#8216;Equal Protection of the Laws&#8217;</a></p>
]]>
        

    </content>
</entry>

<entry>
    <title>Was the Second Amendment Borrowed from the Massachusetts Constitution?</title>
    <link rel="alternate" type="text/html" href="http://federalistblog.us/2009/04/2nd_amendment_and_mass_right.html" />
    <id>tag:federalistblog.us,2009://2.30</id>

    <published>2009-04-01T12:50:27Z</published>
    <updated>2010-01-11T16:48:20Z</updated>

    <summary>The similarities between the right to bear arms under the United States Second Amendment and Article XVII of the Massachusetts Constitution of 1780 are nearly identical. Both speak of a right of the people &#8220;to keep and bear arms&#8221; for...</summary>
    <author>
        <name>P.A. Madison</name>
        
    </author>
    
        <category term="second amendment" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#category" />
    
    <category term="congress" label="Congress" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="jamesmadison" label="James Madison" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="righttokeepandbeararms" label="Right to keep and bear arms" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="secondamendment" label="Second Amendment" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="secondamendmenttotheunitedstatesconstitution" label="Second Amendment to the United States Constitution" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="supremecourtoftheunitedstates" label="Supreme Court of the United States" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
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    <content type="html" xml:lang="en" xml:base="http://federalistblog.us/">
        <![CDATA[<p>The similarities between the right to bear arms under the United States Second Amendment and Article XVII of the Massachusetts Constitution of 1780 are nearly identical. Both speak of a right of the people &#8220;to keep and bear arms&#8221; for purpose of providing security through common defense. It certainly would not be unheard of to find provisions of the Massachusetts Constitution found incorporated into the United States Constitution because we know that is where &#8220;advice and consent&#8221; comes from.</p>

<p>Text Comparisons:</p>

<p><b>Initial Proposed Second Amendment:</b> The right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed; a well-armed and well-regulated militia being the best security of a free country.</p>

<p><b>Massachusetts Constitution Art. XVII:</b> The people have a right to keep and to bear arms for the common defence. And as, in time of peace, armies are dangerous to liberty, they ought not to be maintained without the consent of the legislature; and the military power shall always be held in an exact subordination to the civil authority and be governed by it.</p>

<p><b>U.S. Senate Second Amendment Proposal:</b> A well regulated militia, being the best security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms for the common defense, shall not be infringed. </p>

<p><b>Final Second Amendment Edit:</b> A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.</p>

<p>The principal variation between the Second Amendment and the Massachusetts provision is the Federal Constitution speaks of a well-regulated militia as a &#8220;security of a Free State&#8221; while the Massachusetts provision refers to a &#8220;common defense&#8221; through an armed populace. It would not be a stretch to say &#8220;common defense&#8221; and &#8220;security of a free State&#8221; structurally speak of the same thing. James Madison in 1813 spoke of well-armed militias in terms of both security and defense as &#8220;the great bulwark of <u>defense and security</u> for free states.&#8221; Hamilton had said the militia was &#8220;the most natural defense of a free country,&#8221; and &#8220;the guardian of the national security.&#8221; </p>

<p>Thomas Jefferson remarked in his 1808 message, &#8220;For a people who are free, and mean to remain so, a well-organized and armed militia is their best security.&#8221; </p>

<p>On December 13, 1859, the governor of Massachusetts requested the opinion of the State Supreme Court on questions relating to the militia, and in response to the governor, the justices said the United States Second Amendment and Article XVII of the Massachusetts Constitution were both &#8220;<i>similar provisions.&#8221;</i> Would had been difficult to refer to these two constitutional provisions as similar if the Second Amendment was viewed as an individual right to privately own and use weapons for personal defense while the State Constitution was viewed strictly as a right of the people to maintain armed militias for their common defense in contrast to entrusting their security to a standing army in times of peace.</p>

<p>Prominent Massachusetts politican, Francis Bird, said of the Massachusetts &#8220;right to bear arms for the common defence&#8221; on October 29, 1853: </p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>Not for self-defence, Mr. Attorney-General and Messrs. Justices, for that is a natural right, and needs no constitutional guarantee; but for the &#8220;common defence.&#8221; The Attorney-General graciously admits &#8220;the right of individuals peaceably to organize themselves into armed bodies, at their own expense, for military instruction or defence against lawless violence.&#8221;</p> </blockquote>

<p>Speaking of the Federal Second Amendment, he says:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>&#8220;To keep and bear arms,&#8221; not for self-defence, not for &#8220;military instruction,&#8221; not for &#8220;special service in keeping guard;&#8221; but as members of a &#8220;well regulated &#8221; [State] militia. This was the very purpose of adopting this second amendment to the federal constitution&#8212;to put this matter of the independence of the State militia beyond the domain of controversy; and this is the right guaranteed by this amendment, the right of the people to bear arms, not for &#8220;making defence under special exigencies,&#8221; which could in no possible manner come under the control of Congress, and needed no guarantee, but to bear them as a part of the military power of the State.</p></blockquote>

<p>As I have said <a href="http://federalistblog.us/2008/07/dc_v_heller_was_scalia_honest_with_the_facts.html">here</a>, the Massachusetts provision to keep and bear arms can only be understood through events of the revolutionary war. Massachusetts Governor Gage was ordered by the King to confiscate public arms from the Charlestown arsenal, invoking public outrage, and the King made sure no arms shipments could be delivered to the colonies. This forced the Massachusetts Committee of Safety to secretly collect muskets and gunpowder and keep at a secret location where they could later be used to arm local militia members.</p>

<p>Elbridge Gerry of Massachusetts confirmed this during his remarks on the Second Amendment on August 17, 1789:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>What, sir, is the use of a militia? It is to prevent the establishment of a standing army, the bane of liberty. Now, it must be evident, that under this provision, together with their other powers, Congress could take such measures with respect to a militia, as to make a standing army necessary. Whenever Governments mean to invade the rights and liberties of the people, they always attempt to destroy the militia, in order to raise an army upon their ruins. This was actually done by Great Britain at the commencement of the late Revolution. They used every means in their power to prevent the establishment of an effective militia to the Eastward. The Assembly of Massachusetts, seeing the rapid progress that administration were making to divest them of their inherent privileges, endeavored to counteract them by the organization of the militia; but they were always defeated by the influence of the Crown.</p> </blockquote>

<p>Both National and Massachusetts constitutions recognize this plight of the people of the colonies during the war in arming themselves to combat British forces by forbidding government to do what the King had done in disarming their ability to organize and bear arms against a common enemy. Otherwise, a national standing army would exist locally to replace local militia forces under the pretense of providing for security and defense of the State. As Pomeroy explained, the object of the Second Amendment is &#8220;to secure a well-armed militia&#8221; so that no national standing army would be required during time of peace.</p>

<p>The reason the Second Amendment or Article XVII of the Massachusetts Constitution does not imply an individual right to possess arms is because armed individuals acting under their own right would be useless in providing security or any kind of meaningful defense without proper organization and training. Judge Story drove this point home in his commentaries when he remarked, <i>&#8220;[h]ow it is practicable to keep the people duly armed without some organization it is difficult to see.&#8221;</i></p>

<p>C.J. Marshal said, &#8220;In almost every convention by which the Constitution was adopted, amendments to guard against the abuse of power were recommended. These amendments demanded security against the apprehended encroachments of the General Government &#8212; not against those of the local governments.&#8221;</p>

<p>The Second Amendment neither is a right nor does it recognize a right, but merely puts Congress on notice that no power exists that allows them to encroach and disarm the State militias or replace them with a standing army. There never was any need for a constitutional amendment for personal self-defense using a gun no more than there was ever a need for a constitutional amendment to eat food, or seek warmth.</p>
]]>
        

    </content>
</entry>

<entry>
    <title>Historical Meaning Behind &apos;Equal Protection of the Laws&apos;</title>
    <link rel="alternate" type="text/html" href="http://federalistblog.us/2009/02/equal_protection_of_the_laws.html" />
    <id>tag:federalistblog.us,2009://2.29</id>

    <published>2009-02-06T07:22:27Z</published>
    <updated>2010-01-14T20:33:42Z</updated>

    <summary> The phrase &#8220;Equal Protection of the Laws&#8221; is another way of saying &#8220;equal justice&#8221; or, &#8220;under the protection of law,&#8221; which was a popular expression during colonial times to show different religious sects and denominations were equal &#8220;under the...</summary>
    <author>
        <name>P.A. Madison</name>
        
    </author>
    
        <category term="14th amendment" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#category" />
    
        <category term="equal protection" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#category" />
    
    <category term="constitution" label="Constitution" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="equalprotectionclause" label="Equal Protection Clause" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="fourteenthamendment" label="Fourteenth Amendment" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="fourteenthamendmenttotheunitedstatesconstitution" label="Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="houseoflords" label="House of Lords" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="law" label="Law" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="unitedstates" label="United States" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="unitedstatesconstitution" label="United States Constitution" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    
    <content type="html" xml:lang="en" xml:base="http://federalistblog.us/">
        <![CDATA[<p> The phrase &#8220;Equal Protection of the Laws&#8221; is another way of saying &#8220;equal justice&#8221; or, &#8220;under the protection of law,&#8221; which was a popular expression during colonial times to show different religious sects and denominations were equal <i>&#8220;under the protection of law.&#8221;</i> The first version of the Fourteenth Amendment secured <i>&#8220;<b>to all persons in the several States equal protection in the rights of life, liberty, and property.</b></i>&#8221; The primary sponsor of the Fourteenth Amendments first section, Rep. John A. Bingham of Ohio, said these were the words of the &#8220;fifth article of the amendment provides that &#8216;No person shall be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of the law.&#8217;&#8221; </p>

<p> In other words, even though there was no mention of &#8220;due process&#8221; in this early version, it was strictly understood to have meant the equal protection of those laws of &#8220;due process.&#8221; When Rep. Bingham first introduced the words, &#8220;Equal Protection&#8221; in the year 1866 he insisted these words were already part of the existing Constitution in the words &#8220;no person&#8221; and not &#8220;no freeman&#8221; shall be denied due process of the laws. In his last major speech on the Fourteenth Amendment prior to being submitted to the States for approval, pointed out no State under the original Constitution had a right to to deny anyone the<i> equal protection of the laws:</i></p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>No State ever had the right, under the forms of law or otherwise, to deny to any freeman the <u>equal protection protection of the laws</u> or to abridge the privileges or immunities of any citizen of the republic, although many of them have assumed and exercised the power, and that without remedy.</p></blockquote>

<p> Rep. Bingham is talking about the fact the protection of life, liberty and property through <i>due process</i> was always recognized as a privilege or immunity of United States citizens when they journey outside of their own State of residence to other States. Because of this no State really had any right to say by law that black citizens of the United States shall not be given recourse in any State court of law while a white man had such protections of law available to 
him. </p>

<p> The words &#8220;Equal Protection of the Laws&#8221; are as ancient as the Magna Charta itself and can be found referred to in parliamentary debates and pleadings before the crown. For example, a petition of Henry Foskett to the King in 1812 read, in part:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>Your petitioner being persuaded that in a country which; so justly boasts of the due administration of justice, <i><b>and of the equal protection of the laws</b></i>, the wrongs thus suffered by him will not remain unredressed, doth humbly trust, that as your Royal Highness is now invested with the entire authority of the Crown, he may be again be permitted to appeal to the justice of your Royal Highness.</p></blockquote>
]]>
        <![CDATA[<p>In response to a Bill of Pains and Penalties introduced into the House of Lords in 1820, Middlesex County resolved the following: &#8220;That the Queen, as a subject, ought to have the same advantage as other subjects in the fair and <i><b>equal protection of the laws</b></i>. That by the present Bill of Pains and Penalties her Majesty is placed out of the protection of the existing laws, of which, without injustice, the most humble subject cannot be deprived.&#8221;</p>

<p>Author of the Equal Protection Clause under the Fourteenth Amendment, Rep. Bingham of Ohio, reminded members of the House of Representatives a number of times that the &#8220;Equal Protection of the Laws&#8221; were the words of the 40th Chapter of the Magna Charta: 
<i>&#8220;We will sell to no man, we will not deny or delay to any man right or Justice.&#8221;</i></p>

<p>The insertion of these words into the Magna Charta was intended to fix England&#8217;s custom under King John of bringing gifts or payment to the King in order to obtain justice before his courts, or extorting fines from suitors or causing delay or denial to right of justice. In other words, under the 40th chapter the right to justice was no longer dependent upon the prerogative of anyone but of the law of the land.</p>

<p>One of the first acts of the First Congress in 1789 was to require all federal judges to equally administer those laws that protect all in their life, liberty and property by solemnly affirming to &#8220;administer justice without respect to persons, and do equal right to the poor and to the rich.&#8221;<p>While all State constitutions generally guaranteed due process of the laws, this guarantee could be denied or unequally administered to persons of color, lead to President Andrew Johnson in his December 1865 message to Congress to declare there should be &#8220;equal and exact justice to all men.&#8221; This became the battle cry behind Rep. Bingham&#8217;s quest to amend the Constitution to guarantee &#8220;equal and exact justice to all men&#8221; before courts of justice.</p>

<p>The Fourteenth Amendment&#8217;s Equal Protection Clause was an important addition for giving effect to the Equal Protection of the Laws under the Civil Rights Bill of 1866, which Bingham had said he intended to codify under the Fourteenth Amendment. With the addition of the Equal Protection Clause under the Fourteenth Amendment, the defined Equal Protection of the Laws under the 1866 Civil Rights Bill was given full effect: &#8220;<i><b>[F]ull and equal benefit of all laws and proceedings for the security of person and property, as is enjoyed by white citizens, and shall be subject to like punishment, pains, and penalties, and to none other, any law, statute, ordinance, regulation, or custom, to the contrary notwithstanding.</b></i>&#8221; This is why Senator Howard introduced the words to mean:</p>

<blockquote class="main">
<p>It prohibits the hanging of a black man for a crime for which the white man is not to be hanged. It protects the black man in his fundamental rights as a citizen with the same shield which it throws over the white man. Ought not the time to be now passed when <u>one measure of justice is to be meted out to a member of one caste while another and a different measure is meted out to the member of another caste</u>, both castes being alike citizens of the United States, both bound to obey the same laws, to sustain the burdens of the same Government, and both equally responsible to justice and to God for the deeds done in the body?</p>
</blockquote>

<p>Rep. Thaddeus Stevens (Co-Chairman of the Reconstruction Committee) introduced the words in the House this way:</p>

<blockquote class="main">
<p>Whatever law punishes a white man for a crime shall punish the black man precisely in the same way and to the same degree. Whatever law protects the white man shall afford &#8220;equal&#8221; protection to the black man. &#8230; Now different degrees of punishment are inflicted, not on the magnitude of the crime, but according to the color of the skin. Now color disqualifies a man from testifying in courts, or being tried in the same way as white men.</p>
</blockquote>

<p>Howard and Stevens clearly are not speaking of social equality, but rather equality of justice in due process. On December 20, 1870, Bingham removed all doubt to this understanding in a speech before the House on the meaning of the Equal Protection of the Laws:</p>

<blockquote class="main">
<p>What did this great people proclaim by the adoption of that amendment, with one unbroken voice, from Maine to California and to Oregon? It was this: that neither the Carolinas, nor Ohio, nor New York, nor Pennsylvania, nor any other State in this Union, shall <u>deny to the chiefest offender</u> hitherto against the rights of this people the equal protection of the laws, and especially of the Constitution and of all laws made in pursuance of it; equal protection with the first man in the Republic. In other words, it places Davis and Toombs and Slidell and Benjamin, who were of the architects of that atrocious revolt (civil war), under like protection of the law with Grant and Sherman and Sheridan, wherever they might be in the Republic, thereby proclaiming them citizens of the United States, and as such by the people&#8217;s decree, which no man shall question, entitled to the equal protection of the laws, and that no State should deny to any of them the equal protection of the laws. &#8230; They are thereby assured in the general rights of citizens of the United States, and enabled in everyplace proudly and truthfully to exclaim, &#8220;I, too, <b>though the greatest of offenders against its laws</b>, am a citizen of the Republic.&#8221;</p>
</blockquote>

<p>In a December 20, 1870 speech, Bingham points out no State may deny the equal protection &#8220;<b><i>not of its laws, but of the laws</i></b>,&#8221; i.e., laws of due process. If these words really meant, &#8220;any law&#8221; then it would have been a total waste of time to have adopted the Fifteenth Amendment because any law that denied suffrage because of race would have easily been found inherently unequal.</p>

<p>Three years after the adoption of the Fourteenth Amendment, Bingham declares what laws deserves equal protection: &#8220;[N]o State should deny to any such person <u>any of the rights which it guaranties to all men.</u>&#8221; What laws do States guarantee to all men post Fourteenth Amendment? The laws of due process, of course.</p>

<p>And finally, it is important to note that only courts administer the laws of due process in the course of proceedings of justice who must recognize equality of all persons before them and not cities, counties, jails, police departments, or even schools. 
No State would had ratified an Amendment to the Constitution that would have required direct social equality.</p>
]]>
    </content>
</entry>

<entry>
    <title>Defining Natural-Born Citizen</title>
    <link rel="alternate" type="text/html" href="http://federalistblog.us/2008/11/natural-born_citizen_defined.html" />
    <id>tag:federalistblog.us,2008://2.28</id>

    <published>2008-11-18T11:24:51Z</published>
    <updated>2010-01-12T20:20:57Z</updated>

    <summary>&#8220;The common law of England is not the common law of these States.&#8221; &#8212;George Mason What might the phrase &#8220;natural-born citizen&#8221; of the United States imply under the U.S. Constitution? The phrase has always been obscure due to the lack...</summary>
    <author>
        <name>P.A. Madison</name>
        
    </author>
    
        <category term="citizenship" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#category" />
    
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        <![CDATA[<p style="font-size: 12px;"><i><b>&#8220;The common law of England is not the common law of these States.&#8221;</b> &#8212;George Mason</i></p>

<p><br /></p>

<p>What might the phrase &#8220;natural-born citizen&#8221; of the United States imply under the U.S. Constitution? The phrase has always been obscure due to the lack of any single authoritative source to confer in order to understand the condition of citizenship the phrase recognizes. Learning what the phrase might have meant following the Declaration of Independence, and the adoption of the Fourteenth Amendment, requires detective work. As with all detective work, eliminating the usual suspects from the beginning goes a long way in quickly solving a case.</p>

<p><b>What Natural-Born Citizen Could Not Mean</b></p>

<p>Could a natural-born citizen simply mean citizenship due to place of birth? </p>

<p>Unlikely in the strict sense because we know one can be native born and yet not a native born citizen of this country. There were even disputes whether anyone born within the District of Columbia or in the territories were born citizens of the United States (they were generally referred to as &#8220;inhabitants&#8221; instead.) National Government could make no &#8220;territorial allegiance&#8221; demands within the several States because as Madison explained it, the &#8220;powers reserved to the several States will extend to all the objects which, in the ordinary course of affairs, concern the lives, liberties, and properties of the people, and the internal order, improvement, and prosperity of the State.&#8221;</p>

<p>Jurisdiction over citizenship via birth within the several States was part of the &#8220;ordinary course of affairs&#8221; of the States that only local laws could affect. Early acts of Naturalization recognized the individual State Legislatures as the only authority who could make anyone a citizen of a State. Framer James Wilson said, &#8220;a citizen of the United States is he, who is a citizen of at least some one state in the Union.&#8221; These citizens of each State were united together through Article IV, Sec. II of the U.S. Constitution, and thus, no act of Congress was required to make citizens of the individual States citizens of the United States.</p>

<p>Prior to the Revolutionary War place of birth within the dominions of the crown was the principle criterion for establishing perpetual allegiance and citizenship. After independence each State was free to establish their own maxims on the subject. James Madison&#8217;s own State of Virginia adopted a birthright law authored by Thomas Jefferson in 1779 that recognized parentage (citizenship of father) in determining citizenship of the child: </p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>[A]ll infants, wheresoever born, whose father, if living, or otherwise, whose mother was a citizen at the time of their birth, or who migrate hither, their father, if
living, or otherwise, their mother becoming a citizen, or who migrate hither without
father or mother, shall be deemed citizens of this Commonwealth until they relinquish
that character, in manner as hereinafter expressed; and all others not being citizens of
any, of the United States of America, shall be deemed aliens. </p></blockquote>

<p>Some States made citizenship conditional on either parent in terms of their citizenship, such as Kentucky: &#8220;[E]very child, wherever born, whose father or mother was or shall be a citizen of Kentucky at the birth of such child, shall be deemed citizens of that State.&#8221; One common law found in a number of States that defined those born as citizens read, &#8220;All persons born in this state, and resident within it, except the children of transient aliens, and of alien public ministers and consuls, etc.&#8221; </p>

<p>The State of Connecticut adopted a law that read, &#8220;All persons born in this State &#8230; except aliens, paupers, and fugitives from justice or service, are and shall be deemed to be citizens of this State, owing it allegiance and entitled to receive its protection, until they shall have voluntarily withdrawn from its limits and become incorporated into some other State or sovereignty as members thereof.&#8221; States that were slow in enacting laws over acquiring citizenship through birth forced courts to adjudicate citizenship disputes under common law rules.</p>
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        <![CDATA[<p>Could a natural-born citizen perhaps be synonymous with the British term &#8220;natural-born subject&#8221;? </p>

<p>It is very doubtful the framers adopted the doctrine found under the old English doctrine of &#8220;natural-born subject.&#8221; The British doctrine allowed for double allegiances, something the founders considered improper and dangerous. The American naturalization process required all males to twice renounce all allegiances with other governments and pledge their allegiance to this one before finally becoming a citizen. </p>

<p>Framer Rufus King said allegiance to the United States depended on whether a person is a &#8220;member of the body politic.&#8221; King says no nation should adopt or naturalize a person of another society without the consent of that person. The reason? Because &#8220;<b><i>he ought not silently to be embarrassed with a double allegiance.</i></b>&#8221; House Report No. 784, dated June 22, 1874, stated, &#8220;<i><b>The United States have not recognized a &#8216;double allegiance.&#8217; By our law a citizen is bound to be &#8216;true and faithful&#8217; alone to our government.</b></i>&#8221; </p>

<p>Under the old English common law doctrine of natural-born subject, birth itself was an act of naturalization that required no prior consent or demanded allegiance to the nation in advance. Furthermore, birth was viewed as enjoining a &#8220;perpetual allegiance&#8221; upon all that could never be severed or altered by any change of time or act of anyone. England&#8217;s &#8220;perpetual allegiance&#8221; due from birth was extremely unpopular in this country; often referred to as absurd barbarism, or simply perpetual nonsense. America went to war with England over the doctrine behind &#8220;natural-born subject&#8221; in June of 1812.</p>

<p>Because Britain considered all who were born within the dominions of the crown to be its natural-born subjects even after becoming naturalized citizens of the United States, led to British vessels blockading American ports. Under the British blockade, every American ship entering or leaving was boarded by soldiers in search of British born subjects. At least 6,000 American citizens who were found to be British natural-born subjects were pressed into military service on behalf of the British Empire, and thus, the reason we went to war. </p>

<p><b>Fourteenth Amendment</b></p>

<p>Whatever might had been the correct understanding of &#8220;natural-born citizen&#8221; prior to 1866, the adoption of the Fourteenth Amendment certainly changes the view because for the first time we have a written national rule declaring who are citizens through birth or naturalization. Who may be born citizens is conditional upon being born &#8220;subject to the jurisdiction&#8221; of the United States - a condition not required under the common law. The legislative definition of &#8220;subject to the jurisdiction thereof&#8221; was defined as &#8220;Not owing allegiance to anybody else.&#8221;</p>

<p><span style="background-color: #FFFF99">This national rule prevents us from interpreting natural-born citizen under common law rules because it eliminates the possibility of a child being born with more than one allegiance.</span></p>

<p>The primary author of the citizenship clause, Sen. Jacob M. Howard, said the &#8220;word jurisdiction, as here employed, ought to be construed so as to imply a full and complete jurisdiction on the part of the United States, coextensive in all respects with the constitutional power of the United States, whether exercised by Congress, by the executive, or by the judicial department; that is to say, <u>the same jurisdiction in extent and quality as applies to every citizen of the United States now</u>.&#8221; </p>

<p>United States Attorney General, George Williams, whom was a U.S. Senator aligned with Radical Republicans during the drafting of the Fourteenth Amendment in 1866, ruled in 1873 the word &#8220;jurisdiction&#8221; under the Fourteenth Amendment &#8220;<b>must be understood to mean absolute and complete jurisdiction, such as the United States had over its citizens before the adoption of this amendment.</b>&#8221; He added, &#8220;Political and military rights and duties do not pertain to anyone else.&#8221;</p>

<p>Essentially then, &#8220;subject to the jurisdiction thereof&#8221; means the same jurisdiction the United States exercises over its own citizens, i.e., only citizens of the United States come within its operation since citizens of the United States do not owe allegiance to some other nation at the same time they do the United States. This makes a great deal of sense for the time because there was a great deal of controversy over conflicts arising from double allegiances. </p>

<p>Just as a person cannot be naturalized and subject to the jurisdiction of the United States while owing allegiance to another nation - neither can anyone born. Why would &#8220;<i>subject to the jurisdiction thereof</i>&#8221; be any different with persons born since this jurisdiction equally applies to persons born or naturalized? If allegiance simply meant location on American soil, then what was the purpose of having aliens renounce their allegiance to other countries and pledge their allegiance to this one for purposes of becoming naturalized? Perhaps because locality itself was never enough to confer allegiance and citizenship?</p>

<p>It is worth noting that wives and children were never naturalized separately but became naturalized through the father/husband. Because &#8220;subject to the jurisdiction thereof&#8221; requires not owing allegiance to any other nation, and because the nation does not recognize double allegiances that can be created at common law, narrows the possibilities to what &#8220;natural-born citizen&#8221; can mean.</p>

<p><b>Natural-Born Citizen Defined</b></p>

<p>One universal point most all early publicists agreed on was natural-born citizen must mean one who is a citizen by no act of law. If a person owes their citizenship to some act of law (naturalization for example), they cannot be considered a natural-born citizen. This leads us to defining natural-born citizen under the laws of nature - laws the founders recognized and embraced.</p>

<p>Under the laws of nature, every child born requires no act of law to establish the fact the child inherits through nature his/her father&#8217;s citizenship as well as his name (or even his property) through birth. This law of nature is also recognized by law of nations. Sen. Howard said the citizenship clause under the Fourteenth Amendment was by virtue of &#8220;natural law and national law.&#8221; </p>

<p>The advantages of Natural Law is competing allegiances between nations are avoided, or at least with those nations whose custom is to not make citizens of other countries citizens without their consent. Any alternations or conflicts due to a child&#8217;s natural citizenship are strictly a creature of local municipal law. In the year 1866, the United States for the first time adopted a local municipal law under Sec. 1992 of U.S. Revised Statutes that read: &#8220;<i>All persons born in the United States and not subject to any foreign power, excluding Indians not taxed, are declared to be citizens of the United States.</i>&#8221;</p>

<p>Rep. John A. Bingham commenting on Section 1992 said it means &#8220;every human being born within the jurisdiction of the United States <u>of parents not owing allegiance to any foreign sovereignty</u> is, in the language of your Constitution itself, a natural born citizen.&#8221; (Cong. Globe, 39th, 1st Sess., 1291 (1866)) </p>

<p>Bingham had asserted the same thing in 1862 as well:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>Does the gentleman mean that any person, born within the limits of the Republic, and who has offended against no law, can rightfully be exiled from any State or from any rood of the Republic? Does the gentleman undertake to say that here, in the face of the provision in the Constitution, that persons born within the limits of the Republic, of parents who are not the subjects of any other sovereignty, are native-born citizens, whether they be black or white? There is not a textbook referred to in any court which does not recognise the principle that I assert. (Cong. Globe, 37th, 2nd Sess., 407 (1862))</p></blockquote>

<p>Bingham subscribed to the same view as most everyone in Congress at the time that in order to be born a citizen of the United States one must be born within the allegiance of the Nation. Bingham had explained years earlier that to be born within the allegiance of the United States the parents, or more precisely, the father, must not owe allegiance to some other foreign sovereignty (remember the U.S. abandoned England&#8217;s &#8220;natural allegiance&#8221; doctrine). This of course, explains why emphasis of not owing allegiance to anyone else was the affect of being subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.</p>

<p>It should be noted this allegiance due under England&#8217;s common law and American law are of two different species. Under the common law one owed a personal allegiance to the King as an individual upon birth. Under the American system there was no individual ruler to owe a personal allegiance to.</p>

<p>The constitutional requirement for the President of the United States to be a natural-born citizen had one purpose according to St. George Tucker: </p>

<blockquote class="main">That provision in the constitution which requires that the president shall be a native-born citizen (unless he were a citizen of the United States when the constitution was adopted,) is a happy means of security against foreign influence, which, wherever it is capable of being exerted, is to he dreaded more than the plague. The admission of foreigners into our councils, consequently, cannot be too much guarded against; their total exclusion from a station to which foreign nations have been accustomed to, attach ideas of sovereign power, sacredness of character, and hereditary right, is a measure of the most consummate policy and wisdom. &#8230;The title of king, prince, emperor, or czar, without the smallest addition to his powers, would have rendered him a member of the fraternity of crowned heads: their common cause has more than once threatened the desolation of Europe. To have added a member to this sacred family in America, would have invited and perpetuated among us all the evils of Pandora&#8217;s Box. </blockquote>

<p>Charles Pinckney in 1800 said the presidential eligibility clause was designed &#8220;to insure &#8230; attachment to the country.&#8221; President Washington warned a &#8220;passionate attachment of one nation for another, produces a variety of evils,&#8221; and goes on to say:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>Sympathy for the favorite nation, facilitating the illusion of an imaginary common interest, in cases where no real common interest exists, and infusing into one the enmities of the other, betrays the former into a participation in the quarrels and wars of the latter, without adequate inducement or justification. It leads also to concessions to the favorite nation, of privileges denied to others, which is apt doubly to injure the nation making the concessions; by unnecessarily parting with what ought to have been retained; and by exciting jealousy, ill- will, and a disposition to retaliate, in the parties from whom equal privileges are withheld.</p>

<p>And it gives to ambitious, corrupted, or deluded citizens, (who devote themselves to the favorite nation,) facility to betray or sacrifice the interests of their own country, without odium, sometimes even with popularity; gilding, with the appearance of a virtuous sense of obligation, a commendable deference for public opinion, or a laudable zeal for public good, the base or foolish compliances of ambition, corruption, or infatuation.</p></blockquote>

<p>What better way to insure attachment to the country then to require the President to have inherited his American citizenship through his American father and not through a foreign father. Any child can be born anywhere in the country and removed by their father to be raised in his native country. The risks would be for the child to return in later life to reside in this country bringing with him foreign influences and intrigues, and thus, making such a citizen indistinguishable from a naturalized citizen.</p>

<p>Therefore, we can say with confidence that a natural-born citizen of the United States means those persons born whose father the United States already has an established jurisdiction over, i.e., born to father&#8217;s who are themselves citizens of the United States. A person who had been born under a double allegiance cannot be said to be a natural-born citizen of the United States because such status is not recognized (only in fiction of law). A child born to an American mother and alien father might be said to be a citizen of the United States by some affirmative act of law (if there was one) but never entitled to be a natural-born citizen because through laws of nature the child inherits the condition of their father.</p>

<p>UPDATE:</p>

<p>I came across this interesting speech by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Langdon Cheves, in February of 1814:</p>

<blockquote class="main">The children have a natural attachment to the society in which they are born: being obliged to acknowledge the protection it has granted to their fathers, they are obliged to it in a great measure for their birth and education. &#8230; We have just observed that they have a right to enter into the society of which their fathers were members. But every man born free, the son of a citizen, arrived at years of discretion, may examine whether it be convenient for him to join in the society for which he was destined by his birth.</blockquote>

<p>Cheves is obviously drawing on the works of Emmerich Vattel, Law of Nations. Not something you would expect from the Speaker of the House of a Nation that supposedly adopted England&#8217;s common law.</p>

<p>UPDATE II:</p>

<p>Rep. A. Smyth (VA), House of Representatives, December 1820:</p>

<blockquote class="main">When we apply the term &#8220;citizens&#8221; to the inhabitants of States, it means those who are members of the political community. The civil law determined the condition of the son by that of the father. A man whose father was not a citizen was allowed to be a perpetual inhabitant, but not a citizen, unless citizenship was conferred on him. </blockquote>

<p>Related:</p>

<p><a href="http://federalistblog.us/2007/09/revisiting_subject_to_the_jurisdiction.html">What &#8220;Subject to the Jurisdiction Thereof&#8221; Really Means</a></p>
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    </content>
</entry>

<entry>
    <title>Georgia vs. U.S. Department of Injustice</title>
    <link rel="alternate" type="text/html" href="http://federalistblog.us/2008/10/georgia_vs_us_department_of_injustice.html" />
    <id>tag:federalistblog.us,2008://2.27</id>

    <published>2008-10-30T14:50:40Z</published>
    <updated>2010-01-11T16:48:08Z</updated>

    <summary>Voting rights groups in Georgia were successful in stopping State election officials from using Social Security numbers and driver&#8217;s license data to check voters&#8217; immigration status. Advocacy groups had told a federal three-judge panel that using the data to verify...</summary>
    <author>
        <name>P.A. Madison</name>
        
    </author>
    
        <category term="voting rights" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#category" />
    
    <category term="alexanderhamilton" label="Alexander Hamilton" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
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    <content type="html" xml:lang="en" xml:base="http://federalistblog.us/">
        <![CDATA[<p>Voting rights groups in Georgia were successful in stopping State election officials from using Social Security numbers and driver&#8217;s license data to check voters&#8217; immigration status. Advocacy groups had told a federal three-judge panel that using the data to verify whether voters are citizens amounts to a &#8220;systematic purging&#8221; of voting rolls that must be approved by the Justice Department.</p>

<p>Why does the State of Georgia need approval by the Justice Department? The answer, according to the Department of Justice, is because Georgia is one of several states with a history of discriminatory voting practices. Well guess what; all States North or South can be said to have had a history of &#8220;discriminatory voting practices.&#8221; Why are Georgia and several other southern States being singled out - and more importantly - under what authority delegated to Congress to do so?</p>

<p>In a June 24, 1870 speech, Fourteenth Amendment framer, John Bingham, said, &#8220;I deny that you can rightfully impose upon Georgia any conditions whatever that you cannot impose upon Ohio and New York. The States are equal.&#8221; Later he added, &#8220;When Georgia&#8217;s representation is officially restored by the very letter of your reconstruction acts, all colorable excuses for imposing any civil or political conditions upon her shall no longer exist.&#8221;</p>

<p>Speaking of another former rebel State, Virginia, Bingham scolds fellow Radical Republicans over an attempt to impose unequal conditions upon that State on January 14, 1870:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>You, the party of liberty and justice, attempt to fasten fetters upon one State which you dare not impose and have no authority to impose upon other States; you attempt to provide that a State admitted to representation in the Congress of the United States shall be governed not by those elected by its citizens under their own laws, but by such officials as may be appointed by act of Congress! It is your right and your duty to govern Virginia until she is reorganized under a republican form of government satisfactory to the Congress of the United States, with just such officials as you deem right and proper; but your right to do so passes away the moment you restore the State to its representation in the Congress of the United States and approve its reorganization under your acts of reconstruction.</p></blockquote>

<p>Senator Jacob M. Howard (member of the Committee of Reconstruction) like most members of the Senate had no illusions over whether the exclusive authority to regulate &#8220;the qualifications of electors, both in the choice of State officers and in the election of Representatives to Congress and electors of President and Vice President&#8221; belonged with the States. The &#8220;manner&#8221; spoken of under the U.S. Constitution means determining the outcome of an election by either voice or ballot; having absolutely nothing to do with qualifications of voters to vote. Mr. Howard bluntly illustrates where the exclusive right to determine voter qualifications resides:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>As far as a State Legislature or a State convention should trench upon the rule expressed in the Fifteenth Amendment relating to race, color, and previous condition of servitude, and to those subjects only, its legislation would be void, and Congress could interfere under the second clause of the amendment to correct that legislation. To that, I agree; but suppose the State affixes as a qualification of a voter the necessity of being the owner of, say, two hundred dollars&#8217; worth of property. Suppose the State should alter its Constitution so as to require from the colored man the possession in his own right of two hundred dollars&#8217; worth of property, which is the old rule in the State of New York, does the Senator from Nevada hold it to be in the power of Congress to alter in any way by congressional enactment that qualification of the State?</p>

<p>No, sir. Why not? Because the qualification does not relate to color, race, or slavery, but only to property, the subjects being as distinct from each other as the sun is from the moon. No, sir; Congress in such a case as that would have no authority whatever to interfere to correct the evil&#8230; .</p>

<p>The States have exercised the power of controlling, regulating, and restricting popular suffrage from the commencement of the State governments down to present time. It is one of the rights reserved to the States, and is to be exercised in its fullness and in its plenitude without any control on the part of Congress or any question being put by Congress to them; and that will be the case until the Fifteenth Amendment shall have been adopted, that amendment relating only to color, race, and slavery, not to property, not to educational qualifications, or anything except these three specific subjects.</p></blockquote>

<p>Speaking of the Fifteenth Amendment before the House in May of 1870, Rep. Bingham said, &#8220;the general power of the States to &#8220;regulate,&#8221; in the language of the Constitution, the election of Representatives to Congress is conceded by all who have ever read that instrument.&#8221; In further driving this message home, he quotes a year later Alexander Hamilton in Federalist No. 59: </p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>Suppose an article had been introduced into the Constitution, empowering the United States to regulate the elections for the particular States, would any man have hesitated to condemn it, both as an unwarrantable transposition of power, and as a premeditated engine for the destruction of the State governments?</p></blockquote>

<p>If the people of the States had ever concluded their exclusive power over voter regulations (State or Federal) was best entrusted with Congress then there would have been lengthy public debates and a constitutional amendment to document this decision of surrender. Because there is no such record of such debates or any documented amendment to this affect, leaves neither the courts nor Congress any pretense to pretend that they have - unless of course this nation has long ceased to be a democracy.</p>
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    </content>
</entry>

<entry>
    <title>Original Meaning: Freedom of Speech and of the Press</title>
    <link rel="alternate" type="text/html" href="http://federalistblog.us/2008/10/freedom_of_speech_and_of_the_press.html" />
    <id>tag:federalistblog.us,2008://2.26</id>

    <published>2008-10-19T05:50:09Z</published>
    <updated>2010-01-11T16:48:08Z</updated>

    <summary>Before discussing the meaning of the words &#8220;freedom of speech, or of the press&#8221; as established under early American law, we should first understand why these words are found under the United States Constitution. Mr. Madison explained in 1799, &#8220;Without...</summary>
    <author>
        <name>P.A. Madison</name>
        
    </author>
    
        <category term="1st amendment" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#category" />
    
    <category term="alexanderhamilton" label="Alexander Hamilton" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="fourteenthamendment" label="Fourteenth Amendment" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
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    <category term="unitedstates" label="United States" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
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    <content type="html" xml:lang="en" xml:base="http://federalistblog.us/">
        <![CDATA[<p>Before discussing the meaning of the words &#8220;freedom of speech, or of the press&#8221; as established under early American law, we should first understand why these words are found under the United States Constitution. Mr. Madison explained in 1799, &#8220;Without tracing farther the evidence on this subject, it would seem scarcely possible to doubt, that no power whatever over the press was supposed to be delegated by the Constitution, as it originally stood; and that the [first] amendment was intended as a positive and absolute reservation of it.&#8221; Alexander Hamilton argues in Federalist No. 84 why such an amendment does not belong under the federal constitution:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>Why for instance, should it be said, that the liberty of the press shall not be restrained, when no power is given by which restrictions may be imposed? I will not contend that such a provision would confer a regulating power; but it is evident that it would furnish, to men disposed to usurp, a plausible pretence for claiming that power. They might urge with a semblance of reason, that the constitution ought not to be charged with the absurdity of providing against the abuse of an authority, which was not given, and that the provision against restraining the liberty of the press afforded a clear implication, that a power to prescribe proper regulations concerning it, was intended to be vested in the national government.</p></blockquote>

<p>As one might suppose from the above, Congress would be just as powerless in abridging the freedom of speech or the press without the First Amendment; and the First Amendment served only as a declaration that no such power had been vested with Congress over speech or the press.</p>

<p>Now, under State jurisdiction it is an entirely different matter because unlike national government, States reserved for themselves broad general powers over all domestic concerns within their limits with very few exceptions. It would be alien to our form of government to say it is unconstitutional for a State to prohibit the burning of a flag or for school districts to prohibit what it deems offensive or contrary to norms of decency student clothing or behavior. Absolute regulatory powers over the press and speech was never surrendered by the States, and the U.S. Supreme Court has never found documented anywhere under the U.S. Constitution the surrender of this right.</p>

<p>The court instead has took upon themselves to &#8220;assume&#8221; that &#8220;the &#8216;liberty&#8217; protected by the Fourteenth Amendment includes the liberty of speech and of the press.&#8221; The fatal problem with this assumption is John Bingham, the Fourteenth Amendments primary author, declared at least five times this &#8220;liberty&#8221; was an import of Chapter 39 of the Magna Carta. If the word &#8220;liberty&#8221; was to encompass broad personal rights of all descriptions under the Fourteenth Amendment, then the last thing in the world anyone would do is link the word to the 39th Chapter.</p>

<p>Thomas Jefferson remarked that &#8220;[t]here are certain principles in which all agree, and which all cherish as vitally essential to the protection of the life, liberty, property, and safety of the citizen &#8230; Freedom of person (liberty), securing everyone from imprisonment or other bodily restraint but by the laws of the land. This is effected by the well-know law of habeas corpus.&#8221; In other words, this &#8220;liberty&#8221; protects against arbitrary imprisonment or detention, and not the freedom to speak or write whatever.</p>
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        <![CDATA[<h3 style="color:#CC0000">Freedom of Speech and of the Press Defined</h3>

<p>Freedom of speech and of the press served one purpose in America: <b>To remove the fear of the common law doctrine of <i>seditious libel</i> so citizens could freely speak or publish their grievances or concerns regarding public affairs or conduct of public officials.</b> In England, it could be dangerous to criticize government, or peaceably assemble or petition government for redress of grievances because anything one might speak or write (or draw) could end up being used against them under the charge of seditious libel where truth would be of no defense.</p>

<p>In 1808 for example, the British newspaper publisher, John Drakard, was indicted over an article questioning military flogging, and the jury had been instructed that the military establishment had been injured and &#8220;it was not to be permitted to any man to make the people dissatisfied with the Government under which he lives.&#8221; Henry VIII once made it a high treason crime to suggest his marriage to Anne of Cleves was valid even though it was the truth. </p>

<p>How can we know for sure the freedom of speech or of the press means freedom from seditious libel? All early American laws over speech and the press dealt solely with breaches of the peace or public morality (blasphemy, obscenity, profanity, etc.), but never restraints against public discussion of public measures, grievances or criticism of public officials where truth was of no defense. In other words, the common law doctrine of seditious libel was absent from American laws.</p>

<p>Benjamin Franklin, writing in The Pennsylvania Gazette, April 8, 1736, wrote of the American doctrine behind freedom of speech and of the press:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>Freedom of speech is a principal pillar of a free government; when this support is taken away, the constitution of a free society is dissolved, and tyranny is erected on its ruins. Republics and limited monarchies derive their strength and vigor from a <u>popular examination into the action of the magistrates.</u></p></blockquote>

<p>James Madison in 1799 wrote, &#8220;In every State, probably, in the Union, <u>the press has exerted a freedom in canvassing the merits and measures of public men of every description which has not been confined to the strict limits of the common law.</u>&#8221;</p>

<p>The Democratic-Republican caucus included the following in their 1800 platform: &#8220;An inviolable preservation of the Federal constitution, according to the true sense in which it was adopted by the states. &#8230; Freedom of speech and the press; and opposition, therefore, to all violations of the Constitution, to silence, by force, and not by reason, <u>the complaints or criticisms, just or unjust, of our citizens against the conduct of their public agents.</u>&#8221;</p>

<p>Generally speaking, all State constitutions or laws stipulated along the lines that the &#8220;press shall be free to every citizen who undertakes to examine the official conduct of men acting in a public capacity,&#8221; and  &#8220;in prosecutions for publications investigating the proceedings of officers, or where the matter published is proper for public information, the truth thereof may he given in evidence.&#8221; Allowing juries to determine the facts and the law in such trials acted as a powerful deterrent against frivolous charges by government officials towards speech or publication over their public conduct. </p>

<p>Other common expressions of the freedom found were, &#8220;No law shall ever be passed to restrain or abridge the liberty of speech or of the press; but every person may freely speak, write, and publish his sentiments on all subjects, being responsible for the abuse of such right.&#8221; </p>

<p>If freedom of speech or of the press alone was understood to mean the liberty to freely write or speak whatever one wishes then there can be no purpose for the additional declaration that says persons may also &#8220;freely speak, write, and publish his sentiments on all subjects.&#8221; It is too clear freedom of speech and of the press had specific meaning and that meaning could only have been freedom from seditious libel. Thomas Cooley hit the ball out of park when he wrote of the freedom found under American constitutions:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>The mere exemption from previous restraints (Blackstonian theory)  cannot be all that is secured by the constitutional provisions, inasmuch as of words to be uttered orally there can be no previous censorship, and the liberty of the press might be rendered a mockery and a delusion, and the phrase itself a byword, if, while every man was at liberty to publish what he pleased, the public authorities might nevertheless punish him for harmless publications, &#8230; Their purpose [of the free-speech clauses] has evidently been to protect parties in the free <u>publication of matters of public concern</u>, to secure their right to a <u>free discussion of public events and public measures, and to enable every citizen at any time to bring the government and any person in authority to the bar of public opinion</u> by any just criticism upon their conduct in the exercise of the authority which the people have conferred upon them. &#8230; The evils to be prevented were not the censorship of the press merely, but any action of the government by means of which it might prevent such free and general discussion of public matters as seems absolutely essential to prepare the people for an intelligent exercise of their rights as citizens.</p></blockquote>

<p>It should be apparent now how States could prohibit &#8220;books or other publications of a sectarian infidel or immoral character&#8221; from being &#8220;distributed in any common school,&#8221; or prohibit public discussion of acts of sexual gratification, or even solicitation for donations on public property without permit. The great advantage of adhering to original meaning is that it does not act to force courts to read inventive &#8220;exceptions&#8221; into constitutional words to either sanction a law or rule the law unconstitutional.</p>

<p>It should be pointed out that activism, or points of view, is not protected against restrictions. No one has a right to be heard where they wish that can result in disturbing the peace, traffic disruption, or simply, become in anyway a public nuisance.</p>

<p>The liberty of speech and of the press in this country can be said to have been born in the year 1735 in the colony of New York. The story begins on November 5, 1733 when John Peter Zenger published his first issue of the Weekly Journal that included this criticism:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>[T]he sheriff was deaf to all that could be alleged on that [the Quaker] side; and notwithstanding that he was told by both the late Chief Justice and James Alexander, one of His Majesty&#8217;s Council and counsellor-at-law, and by one William Smith, counsellor-at-law, that such a procedure [disqualifying the Quakers for affirming rather than swearing] was contrary to law and a violent attempt upon the liberties of the people, he still persisted in refusing the said Quakers to vote&#8230;.</p></blockquote>

<p>Governor Crosby wanted Zenger charged with seditious libel but found it difficult to  obtain a grand jury indictment against him. To get around this obstacle Crosby instructed his attorney general to file a formal accusation of a criminal offense before two justices. This in return led to a bench warrant and arrest of Zenger.</p>

<p>The trial opened on August 4, 1735 on the main floor of New York&#8217;s City Hall with Attorney General Bradley&#8217;s reading of the information filed against Zenger. Bradley told jurors that Zenger, &#8220;being a seditious person and a frequent printer and publisher of false news and seditious libels&#8221; had &#8220;wickedly and maliciously&#8221; devised to &#8220;traduce, scandalize, and vilify&#8221; Governor Cosby and his ministers. Bradley said that &#8220;Libeling has always been discouraged as a thing that tends to create differences among men, ill blood among the people, and oftentimes great bloodshed between the party libeling and the party libeled.&#8221; (Linder, <a href="http://www.law.umkc.edu/faculty/projects/ftrials/zenger/zengeraccount.html">The Trial of John Peter Zenger</a> (2001))</p>

<p>Additionally, Bradley explained truth was of no defense for seditious libel under state law while Zenger&#8217;s attorney argued the law should not be interpreted to prohibit &#8220;<i>the just complaints of a number of men who suffer under a bad administration</i>.&#8221; The judge instructed the jury the &#8220;law is clear that you cannot justify a libel,&#8221; and the &#8220;jury may find that Zenger printed and published those papers, and leave to the Court to judge whether they are libelous.&#8221;</p>

<p>With law and precedent squarely against him, the jury nonetheless found Zenger not guilty and the beginning of public opposition to trials of seditious libel had been established. Gouverneur Morris (served on the committee of five responsible for the final drafting of the Constitution) would write a half-century later: &#8220;The trial of Zenger in 1735 was the germ of American freedom, the morning star of that liberty which subsequently revolutionized America.&#8221; It is this liberty we find under the First Amendment and State constitutions today.</p>
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    </content>
</entry>

<entry>
    <title>Q: Did Marshall and Bingham share the same constitutional philosophy?</title>
    <link rel="alternate" type="text/html" href="http://federalistblog.us/2008/09/marshall_and_bingham.html" />
    <id>tag:federalistblog.us,2008://2.25</id>

    <published>2008-09-02T16:11:58Z</published>
    <updated>2010-01-11T16:48:08Z</updated>

    <summary>A reader would like to know what ideological differences there might had been between two influential individuals of constitutional law: Chief Justice John Marshall and John A. Bingham. Answer: While John Bingham spoke cordially of C.J. Marshall, the two sat...</summary>
    <author>
        <name>P.A. Madison</name>
        
    </author>
    
        <category term="Bingham" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#category" />
    
    <category term="commerceclause" label="Commerce Clause" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="constitution" label="Constitution" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="johnbingham" label="John Bingham" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="johnmarshall" label="John Marshall" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="law" label="Law" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="thomasjefferson" label="Thomas Jefferson" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="unitedstates" label="United States" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="unitedstatesconstitution" label="United States Constitution" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    
    <content type="html" xml:lang="en" xml:base="http://federalistblog.us/">
        <![CDATA[<p>A reader would like to know what ideological differences there might had been between two influential individuals of constitutional law: Chief Justice John Marshall and John A. Bingham. Answer: While John Bingham spoke cordially of C.J. Marshall, the two sat at opposite poles of each other. Here is a quick illustration of their differences:</p>

<p>Mr. Bingham was a self-proclaimed &#8220;state rights&#8221; man; Marshall on the other hand was a Nationalist (Federalist) to the left of George Washington. </p>

<p>Mr. Bingham viewed the Alien and Sedition Act as unconstitutional while Marshall considered the Act constitutional under the latitudinarian position of &#8220;powers necessary for the attainment of all objects, which are general in their nature, which interest all America &#8230; would be naturally vested in the Government of the whole.&#8221;</p>

<p>Marshall denounced Madison&#8217;s Virginia resolutions as dangerous;  Bingham embraced his resolutions. Bingham adored Thomas Jefferson; Marshall disliked him.</p>

<p>Bingham believed National government could not exist without States; Marshall believed the States could not exist without a powerful national government.</p>

<p>Bingham believed human beings were not articles of trade under the commerce clause (especially with slavery abolished) and head taxes was a reserved right belonging to each state; Marshall considered people to be part of commercial trade, and thus, State imposed taxes on persons arriving from another country to be illegal under the commerce clause.</p>

<p>Bingham believed the Constitution was more than words alone, it has a spirit born out of past events - and the Constitution can only be interpreted as a whole and not from isolated words. Marshall believed there is a spirit, but only words alone defined that spirit.</p>
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    </content>
</entry>

<entry>
    <title>D.C. v. Heller: Was Scalia Honest with the Facts?</title>
    <link rel="alternate" type="text/html" href="http://federalistblog.us/2008/07/dc_v_heller_was_scalia_honest_with_the_facts.html" />
    <id>tag:federalistblog.us,2008://2.24</id>

    <published>2008-07-16T10:20:25Z</published>
    <updated>2010-01-31T04:57:37Z</updated>

    <summary>&#8220;[T]here is no need to deceive ourselves as to what the original Second Amendment said and meant. Of course, properly understood, it is no limitation upon arms control by the states.&#8221; &#8212;Antoin Scalia, A Matter of Interpretation: Federal Courts and...</summary>
    <author>
        <name>P.A. Madison</name>
        
    </author>
    
        <category term="second amendment" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#category" />
    
    <category term="districtofcolumbiavheller" label="District of Columbia v. Heller" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="law" label="Law" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="righttokeepandbeararms" label="Right to keep and bear arms" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="secondamendment" label="Second Amendment" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="secondamendmenttotheunitedstatesconstitution" label="Second Amendment to the United States Constitution" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="supremecourt" label="Supreme Court" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="unitedstates" label="United States" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="unitedstatessupremecourt" label="United States Supreme Court" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    
    <content type="html" xml:lang="en" xml:base="http://federalistblog.us/">
        <![CDATA[<p style="font-size: 12px;"><b>&#8220;<i>[T]here is no need to deceive ourselves as to what the original Second Amendment said and meant. Of course, properly understood, it is no limitation upon arms control by the states.&#8221;</i></b></p>

<p style="font-size: 12px;"><span class="right">&#8212;Antoin Scalia, A Matter of Interpretation: Federal Courts and the Law (1997) </span></p>

<p><br />
<br /></p>

<p>The recent Supreme Court ruling in District of Columbia v. Heller caught me by surprise by how far the majority, lead by Justice Antoin Scalia, were willing to go to make a case for a broad individual right under the Second Amendment. While plaintiff prevailed under a starkly divided court, the majority failed to provide any clear and convincing evidence to support their claim for a protected individual right. Instead, Scalia presents strained, forced constructions that often were self-contradicting, and seemingly, served only to favor the majorities&#8217; own prejudicial ideal of what keeping and bearing arms should mean.</p>

<p>For example, Scalia writes like the &#8220;First and Fourth Amendments, codified a pre-existing right,&#8221; and the &#8220;very text of the Second Amendment implicitly recognizes the pre-existence of the right and declares only that it &#8216;shall not be infringed.&#8217;&#8221; Later, however, he declares &#8220;there seems to us no doubt&#8221; the Second Amendment &#8220;conferred an individual right to keep and bear arms.&#8221; Which is it, recognition of a pre-existing right or does it directly confer the right?</p>

<p>Clearly the majority subscribed to the view that yes, the right to keep and bear arms are words associated with military service, but these words can also be read to mean more than citizen soldiers keeping of arms to bear in the service of a militia.</p>
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        <![CDATA[<p>Scalia explains the &#8220;Second Amendment is naturally divided into two parts: its prefatory clause and its operative clause. The former does not limit the latter grammatically, but rather announces a purpose.&#8221; Additionally, Scalia adds this prefatory clause acts as a &#8220;clarifying function,&#8221; and &#8220;does not limit or expand the scope of the operative clause.&#8221;</p>

<p>One must wonder why, if the prefatory clause acts as a <i>&#8220;clarifying function</i>,&#8221; the court is adjudicating a District of Columbia gun regulation that does not directly cause any lawfully organized State militia to be disarmed. The prefatory clause remember, speaks only of a well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free State and not of any private right for individuals to privately keep or use firearms for any purpose.</p>

<p>According to the majority, the answer is because &#8220;Nowhere else in the Constitution does a &#8216;right&#8217; attributed to &#8216;the people&#8217; refer to anything other than an individual right.&#8221; Thus, the majority thinks reading the Second Amendment as &#8220;protecting only the right to &#8216;keep and bear Arms&#8217; in an organized militia therefore fits poorly with the operative clause&#8217;s description of the holder of that right as &#8216;the people.&#8217;&#8221; Therefore, the majority begins with the &#8220;strong presumption that the Second Amendment right is exercised individually and belongs to all Americans.&#8221;</p>

<p>Would this mean no one could have ever been compelled to bear arms in the service of the militia because the right can only be exercised individually? Obviously, that prefatory clause is not so clarifying after all.</p>

<p>Perhaps this above so-called explanation is why Scalia felt it was necessary to speak of the Second Amendment as indeed directly conferring a right rather than simply recognizing a reserved right of the people under their State sovereignty to form armed militias. However, if the Second Amendment confers an individual right having nothing to do with service in the militia, one naturally might wonder why a republican form of government was chosen, complete with separate constitutions with their own bill of rights? </p>

<p>Furthermore, if the prefatory clause were to be viewed as dead letters, and limiting national powers ignored (as customary these days), the operative clause would have to be read as an absolute right because the right is unconditional with no exceptions. A law against carrying concealed weapons would be unconstitutional because the right to keep and bear arms alone says nothing about government authority to encroach on the right of people to keep or carry any type of arms. </p>

<p>And the majority did indeed treat the prefatory clause as dead letters when it wrote the &#8220;banning from the home &#8216;the most preferred firearm in the nation to &#8216;keep&#8217; and use for protection of one&#8217;s home and family, would fail constitutional muster.&#8221; To keep guns at home by private choice and for private use has nothing to do with service in the militia under State militia laws. Perhaps if State law made it compulsory for citizens to keep certain arms and ammo at home for use when called to militia service as some once did, and local laws banned keeping those weapons, such a law could well be struck down under State armsbearing amendments.</p>

<p>Therefore, the amendment obviously does not itself confer anything to anybody except declaring Congress possesses no power to infringe a free people&#8217;s right to form and maintain armed militias for common security under lawful authority. Otherwise, there could be no regulation by law for the keeping or carrying of guns under most armsbearing language found in State constitutions.</p>

<p>The State of New York under clause three of its Bill of Rights, adopted nearly identical language as the Federal Second Amendment. However, under clause four, citizens could not on their own <i>&#8220;<b>find soldiers or men of arms, either horsemen or footmen, without the grant and assent of the people of this state, by their representatives in senate and assembly, except in the cases specially provided for by the constitution of the United States.</b></i>&#8221; This clearly recognizes the keeping and bearing of arms to those arms used for the collective arming of bodies of men.</p>

<p>To show how poorly the operative clause fits with the prefatory clause, Scalia tries to convince us the right to keep and bear arms under the Second Amendment was understood to have broad meaning beyond arms of the militia: &#8220;In numerous instances, &#8216;bear arms&#8217; was unambiguously used to refer to the carrying of weapons outside of an organized militia.&#8221;</p>

<p>The problem here, though, is the prefatory clause does not address other &#8220;numerous instances.&#8221; Citing the majorities own cited source, William Rawle, the right to bear arms is &#8220;corollary&#8221; to the proposition of a well-regulated militia as necessary to the security of a Free State. The majority accepts the meaning of a &#8220;well-regulated&#8221; militia to mean &#8220;nothing more than the imposition of proper discipline and training,&#8221; yet on the other hand, they suggest to bear arms can only be &#8220;exercised individually.&#8221;</p>

<p>The majority goes on to insult readers reading comprehension by quoting such legal scholar&#8217;s as J. Pomeroy, Story, Cooley, and others, in supporting their view that bearing arms was not understood to be connected to service in the militia. Scalia quotes Thomas Cooley as saying the &#8220;alternative to a standing army is &#8216;a well-regulated militia&#8217;; but this cannot exist unless the people are trained to bearing arms.&#8221;</p>

<p>Question: Was keeping a handgun for personal self-defense ever considered part of a training regime in bearing arms under a well-regulated militia?</p>

<p>The expressions Scalia quotes from legal scholars attest only to the long held principle of keeping and bearing arms found under the Second Amendment as those arms normally used by a well-regulated militia, and for which are necessary and suitable to a free people to aid them in resisting oppression, usurpation, repel invasion - not those arms used for purposes of committing bank robbery, shooting rabbits or home intruders.</p>

<p>Scalia quotes from J. Pomeroy, but omits his conclusion of the object behind the Second Amendment: &#8220;The object of this clause is to secure a well-armed militia.&#8221;&nbsp; </p>

<p>The majority thinks their &#8220;interpretation is confirmed by analogous armsbearing rights in state constitutions that preceded and immediately followed adoption of the Second Amendment.&#8221; They count two (Pennsylvania and Vermont), and possibly two more, State Constitutions they feel might be analogues to the Federal Second Amendment. They allege Pennsylvania and Vermont &#8220;clearly adopted individual rights unconnected to militia service.&#8221;</p>

<p>The Pennsylvania Constitution read &#8220;The right of the citizens to bear arms in the defence of themselves shall not be questioned,&#8221; while the Vermont Constitution read: &#8220;That the people have a right to bear arms for the defence of themselves and the State&#8212;and as standing armies in the time of peace are dangerous to liberty, they ought not to be kept up; and that the military should be kept under strict subordination to and governed by the civil power.&#8221;</p>

<p>The majority commits a significant error in ignoring other clauses in these constitutions that use the phrase &#8220;bear arms.&#8221; Under Article 9 of the Vermont Constitution no man &#8220;who is conscientiously scrupulous of bearing arms, be justly compelled thereto.&#8221; Article VI, Sec. II of the Pennsylvania Constitution read: &#8220;The freemen of this commonwealth shall be armed and disciplined for its defence. Those who conscientiously scruple to bear arms shall not be compelled to do so; but shall pay an equivalent for personal service.&#8221;</p>

<p>The fact these Constitutions attach a strong military association with bearing arms for defense leaves little doubt what the employed words mean. Scalia could respond by suggesting &#8220;bearing arms&#8221; meant several different things depending on the context the phrase is used - but this path would run into a thick wall.</p>

<p>Scalia suggests Justice James Wilson interpreted the Pennsylvania Constitution&#8217;s armsbearing right as recognition of the natural right of defense &#8220;of one&#8217;s person or house&#8212;what he called the law of &#8216;self preservation.&#8217;&#8221; But Wilson makes clear he is not advancing an individual right to keep and bear arms for personal defense under the Pennsylvania Constitution but only describing its historical meaning that is different from what the majority attempts to place on words alone.</p>

<p>Speaking of the constitutional right of the citizens to bear arms in the defense of themselves shall not be questioned, Wilson says, &#8220;This is one of our many renewals of the Saxon regulations,&#8221; and that &#8220;one may assemble people together in order to protect and defend his house.&#8221; No question Wilson was speaking from personal experience after having in the year 1779 to collectively defend his home along with 34 others from 200 angry protesters who opened fire, killing two who were inside.</p>

<p>Wilson and his fellow defenders were not only able to hold off the mob long enough for reinforcements to arrive through collective defense, but also through ammunition that had been gathered from a local public armory. Thus, Wilson is talking about the renewal of Assize of Arms as established under King Alfred, where his subjects were compelled to become united under sword for the common defense of their family, neighbors, parish and realm. Without such a united defense, no single man with a musket could have been able to defend either themselves or home against a mob of 200 people.</p>

<p>Judge Story remarked in his commentaries that it is impossible to keep the people duly armed without a disciplined and organized militia - and this is exactly the principle armsbearing provisions found in constitutions recognize.</p>

<p>During the Pennsylvania Constitutional Convention of 1837, delegate John Fuller expressed this spirit of a common defense under an organized militia when he said every man &#8220;should be considered as a citizen-soldier, because it is consistent with the very spirit of our Government, that every man should feel such a deep personal interest in it, as that he would be willing to shoulder his musket, at any time, <i><b>and not leave it to his neighbor to defend his possessions</b></i>, or the country which has given him birth.&#8221;</p>

<p>In his 1829 annual message to the Pennsylvania Assembly, Governor John Andrew Shulze said, &#8220;The right to bear arms is another important right guaranteed to all our citizens by the [Pennsylvania] constitution.&#8221; This right says he, imposes on the &#8220;legislature the duty of so organizing and disciplining the whole body of the citizens, that they shall be able, not only to bear arms, but to use them with confidence and skill, &#8216;<u>in defense of themselves and the States</u>, &#8217; if such a necessity shall arise.&#8221; In other words, for the common defense, meaning collectively defending themselves in an organized and trained manner.</p>

<p>Though unlike other similar armsbearing rights found in other State constitutions that used the phrase &#8220;common defense&#8221; and &#8220;bear arms,&#8221; the words &#8220;bear arms&#8221; alone meant the same principle of a common defense because the phrase was understood only to mean bearing arms in the service of the militia for purposes of common defense. Again, militias served as a collective organization of disciplined citizens in defending themselves collectively against other hostile armed bodies of people. Armed individuals alone would be of no use against any organized invasion or security against mass uprising.</p>

<p>There is strong doubt against Justice Scalia&#8217;s assertion the &#8220;right of the citizens to bear arms&#8221; found in these noted constitutions are analogues to the Second Amendment. For example, during the Pennsylvania Constitutional Convention of 1837 there was an attempt to remove the conscientious-objector clause found under Article VI, Sec. II. Delegates who debated this issue found this clause of the State Constitution to be directly analogues to the Federal Second Amendment. For example, delegate John McCahen said:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>In the amendments to the Constitution, article second, would be found the following words: &#8220;A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed. It is there reserved to the people of every State the right to bear arms and organize a militia, and we do not entrench either upon the Constitution of the United States, or the laws of Congress, when we provide that the freemen of the State shall be enrolled and organized as militia.&#8221;</p></blockquote>

<p>Scalia writes the phrase &#8220;keep arms&#8221; was not &#8220;prevalent in the written documents of the founding period that we have found.&#8221; Article XVII of the Massachusetts Constitution of 1780 read: &#8220;<i>The people have a right to keep and to bear arms for the common defence.</i>&#8221; This may not be any different under the Second Amendment&#8217;s well regulated militia &#8220;<u>being necessary to the security of a free State.</u>&#8221; In other words, a well regulated militia is necessary to establish a common defense in order to bring about security for any State. </p>

<p>The meaning behind &#8220;to keep&#8221; is easy to understand through events experienced during the revolutionary war. Military supplies had been forbidden to be exported to any of the colonies by orders of the King, and Governor Gage of Mass. following orders of the King, raided the arsenal at Charlestown, which invoked outrage among the citizens. Because the country was deficient in munitions of war, the Massachusetts Committee of Safety set about secretly collecting muskets and gunpowder to keep at a secrete location where they could later be used to arm the local militia.</p>

<p> It should also be noted that under the old Articles of Confederation States were required to keep arms and ammunition for their well-regulated and disciplined militias in &#8220;public stores.&#8221; </p>

<p>Speaking of comparisons between the Second Amendment and the English Bill of Rights, Scalia claims &#8220;Protestants would never be disarmed&#8221; under the provision of the English Bill of Rights that read: &#8220;That the subjects which are Protestants may have arms for their defense, suitable to their conditions, and as allowed by law.&#8221; Scalia states this &#8220;right has long been understood to be the predecessor to our Second Amendment,&#8221; and that &#8220;it was clearly an individual right, having nothing whatever to do with service in a militia.&#8221;</p>

<p>It is difficult to read from this provision a right for Protestants to never be disarmed because this provision is dependent upon legislation allowing Protestants to have arms for their defense. A law that says Protestants may not have arms would not be infringing because the clause says only that Protestants may have arms for their defense as allowed by law, which provides no protection against banishment. Blackstone described this provision as merely a &#8220;public allowance under due restrictions.&#8221;</p>

<p>Also, there is no evidence to support the claim this English provision &#8220;was clearly an individual right, having nothing whatever to do with service in a militia.&#8221; Just the opposite is true as events surrounding the declaration had everything to do with service in the militia.</p>

<p>The Duke of Ormond had formed an all Irish Militia and provided Protestants who served in his militia with their arms. James II moved to selectively disarm Ormond&#8217;s militia under rumor of another rebellion similar to that of 1641. Meanwhile, Papists were allowed to remain armed and employed in militias contrary to the law of the time.</p>

<p>In 1678, there was an effort to provide defense of Protestants against Papists Militias bearing arms against them. A passage can be found in the Manuscripts of the Marquess of Ormonde, K.P. (December 7, 1678) that reads:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>Yesterday and this day some progress was made in the House in those two points wherein all agree for the disbanding of the army, and for Bills that may secure the Protestant religion whatever happens. In this provision there arose a long debate to have either a distinct Bill or a clause in this to enable Protestants to withstand and defend themselves against any Papists whatsoever that should come with commission and bear arms in any military employment, and to dispense with those laws that at present made it rebellion so to do. <font size="2">(Note that in the year 1678 &#8220;bear arms&#8221; was considered military phraseology.)</font></p></blockquote>

<p>As this passage makes clear, Protestants by law were unable to arm themselves under an organized and disciplined militia for defense against the Papists because such an act was considered a pretext to an organized rebellion. This passage leaves little doubt the words &#8220;Protestants may have arms for their defense suitable to their conditions and as allowed by law&#8221; speaks of arms for the common defense under the laws of an organized militia. This conclusion is further supported by the fact it was the disarming of the Irish Militia and the threat of armed Papist militias that lead to the passage of this provision in 1688, and the fact only Protestants were singled out.</p>

<p>When Lord Amherst ordered the disarming of all inhabitants of London in 1780, he made it clear those who were members of the militia were not to be disarmed along with persons authorized by the King to be armed. The reason is because that would had removed the right of the people to defend or restore order in their community (in this case defend against the riots of 1780).</p>

<p>Scalia appears to ridicule Justice Stevens for placing &#8220;great weight on James Madison&#8217;s inclusion of a conscientious-objector clause in his original draft of the Second Amendment.&#8221; Joseph Story wrote among the defects sought to be enumerated under the Second Amendment was for people to &#8220;have a right to bear arms,&#8221; and &#8220;persons conscientiously scrupulous should not be compelled to bear arms.&#8221; </p>

<p>Delegate Elias Boudinot asked during the Second Amendment debates what dependence can be placed on those who have scruples to bearing arms, and &#8220;what justice can there be in compelling them to bear arms, when, if they are honest men they would rather die than use them.&#8221; This isn&#8217;t the sort of statement anyone would bring up if to keep and bear arms simply means to pack a handgun for personal defense under the Second Amendment. Did Congress or any State ever advocate for the compelling of people to keep guns for their own personal defense at home?</p>

<p>Scalia goes on to quote an 1825 Massachusetts libel case (Commonwealth v. Blanding) as follows: &#8220;The liberty of the press was to be unrestrained, but he who used it was to be responsible in cases of its abuse; like the right to keep fire arms, which does not protect him who uses them for annoyance or destruction.&#8221; </p>

<p>To Scalia, this &#8220;analogy makes no sense if firearms could not be used for any individual purpose at all.&#8221; It does make a great deal of sense because people in fact had a right under Massachusetts law to make, sale, buy and use firearms provided they had been proved and stamped. Scalia&#8217;s mistake is he thinks these remarks might subjectively refer to the State constitutional provision on bearing arms. It does not.</p>

<p>The constitutional terms found under State Constitutions had no application toward the private keeping and use of firearms, and there were no laws preventing citizens from owning and using firearms for the same reason there was no known laws preventing people from owning or using a shovel or, even a tea kettle.</p>

<p>Where guns did come under scrutiny was when they were used to arm organized groups for either lawful or not so lawful purposes. It was not uncommon to find laws for the unlawful organizing of militias outside the laws of the State. It was also common to find laws on small arms that can be concealed or used in crime, and these kind of laws were outside the sphere of bearing arms in the service of a militia.</p>

<p>In Commonwealth of Pennsylvania v. Kreps, the court found pistols were not the kind of arms referred to under the State constitution:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>The second amendment of the Constitution of the United States is a limitation of the power of Congress and of the national government only. The constitutionality of statutes relating to keeping and hearing arms must be determined by the constitutions of the respective states.  &#8230;</p>

<p>A pocket revolver or pistol is not included in the term &#8220;arms,&#8221; as used in Article I, Section 21 of the Constitution of Pennsylvania, and therefore it was not the intention of the people to reserve the right to carry a pocket revolver or pistol without legislative interference or regulation. &#8230;</p>

<p>The Act of April 12, 1873, P. L. 735, which provides, &#8220;That any person who shall carry any pistol, dirk-knife, slung-shot or deadly weapon within the city limits of Harrisburg, except police officers, shall be deemed guilty of a misdemeanor&#8221; does not violate Article I, Section 21, of the Constitution of Pennsylvania.</p></blockquote>

<p>In Ex Parte Thomas, 21 Okla. 770 (1908), the court says:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>The term &#8220;arms,&#8221; as used in the Oklahoma Constitution providing that the right of a citizen to carry and bear arms shall never be prohibited, when construed in connection with article 5, §40, declaring that the Legislature shall provide for organizing, disciplining, maintaining, and equipping the militia of the state, applies solely to such arms as are recognized in civilized warfare, to wit, guns, swords, bayonets, horsemen&#8217;s pistols, etc., and not those used by a ruffian, brawler, or assassin, such as pocket pistols, dirks, sword canes, bowie knives, etc.</p></blockquote>

<p>All the laws I have encountered that deal with civilian gun regulations never used the term &#8220;bear arms&#8221; when addressing private ownership or lawful civilian use of weapons outside of military service. One example is Pennsylvania Game laws, which reads in part: &#8220;Provided, That nothing in this act shall be construed to prevent any citizen of the United States, residing within this Commonwealth, from having a gun in his home; or from using such gun in defense of either person or property; or from shooting at targets or from hunting for or shooting at, in any place in this Commonwealth, anything not protected by the laws of this Commonwealth&#8230;&#8221;</p>

<p>Another example is found under the Civil Articles of Limerick spell out the common civil use of a gun: &#8220;Every nobleman and gentleman comprised in the said second and third articles shall have liberty to ride with a sword and case of pistols, if they think fit; and keep a gun in their houses, for the defence of the same, or for fowling.&#8221;</p>

<p>You would think most all State statutes would follow the same universal terminology found in Federal and State constitutions if &#8220;bear arms&#8221; was widely understood to mean private use of weapons for personal self-defense or hunting. The fact this isn&#8217;t the case confirms &#8220;bear arms&#8221; had a specific military application attached.</p>

<p>Some recent additions to State constitutions addressing arms fall into the same trap the majority finds itself arguing, mainly construing the keeping and bearing of arms as meaning an individual right to privately own and use firearms. For example, the State of Nebraska adopted this language in 1988: &#8220;the right to keep and bear arms for security or defense of self, family, home, and others, and for lawful common defense, hunting, recreational use, and all other lawful purposes, and such rights shall not be denied or infringed by the state or any subdivision thereof.&#8221;</p>

<p>Apart from the misunderstanding the framers of this provision display over the historical meaning of bearing arms, it is a wonderful provision that should be adopted by every State of the Union with a slight change of removing &#8220;to keep and bear arms&#8221; and inserting more relevant terminology: &#8220;to keep firearms.&#8221;</p>

<p>The majority thinks Section 14 of the Freedmen&#8217;s Bureau Act is proof that during the reconstruction period the Second Amendment was understood to give freed blacks the right to keep and bear arms for personal self-defense: </p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>Sec. 14. That in every State or district where the ordinary course of judicial proceedings has been interrupted by the rebellion, and until the same shall be fully restored, and in every State or district whose constitutional relations to the Government have been practically discontinued by the rebellion, and until such State shall have been restored in such relations and shall be duly represented in the Congress of the United States, the right to make and enforce contracts, to sue, be parties, and give evidence, to inherit, purchase, lease, sell, hold, and convey real and personal property, and to have full and equal benefit of all laws and proceedings concerning personal liberty, personal security, and the acquisition, enjoyment, and disposition of estate, real and personal, including the constitutional right to bear arms, shall be secured to and enjoyed by all the citizens of such State or district, without respect to race or color or previous condition of slavery.</p></blockquote>

<p>One fatal flaw with interpreting Section 14 as recognizing a right of individual persons within States to keep and bear arms is that former rebel States were under the sole administration of Congress, divided into military districts, and were not considered organized States. Therefore, it is easy to understand the justification for including the &#8220;constitutional right to bear arms&#8221; since Congress had sole jurisdiction. Another flaw the majority committed was ignoring why the &#8220;constitutional right to bear arms&#8221; language was included in the first place.</p>

<p> It was General Fisk&#8217;s letter to the Commissioner of the Freedmen&#8217;s Bureau that was the basis for the Act to highlight the bearing of arms:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>More than twenty-five thousand colored men of Kentucky have been soldiers in the Army of the Union &#8230;. Their arms are taken from them by the civil authorities and confiscated for the benefit of the Commonwealth. The Union soldier is fined for bearing arms. Thus the right of the people to keep and bear arms as provided in the Constitution is infringed, and the Government for whose protection and preservation these soldiers have fought is denounced as meddlesome and despotic when through its agents it undertakes to protect its citizens in a constitutional right.</p></blockquote>

<p>The infringement turns out not to have anything to do with arms of private citizens at home, but with some 25,000 Union soldiers and their government issued muskets. On the other hand, the city of Opelousas, Louisiana was very careful, unlike Kentucky, not to disarm Freedmen who were in the service of the military:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>SEC. 7. No freedman who is not in the military service shall bo allowed to carry fire-arms, or any kind of weapons, within the limits of the town of Opelousas without the special permission of his employer, in writing, and approved by the mayor or president of the board of police. Any one thus offending shall forfeit his weapons, and shall be imprisoned and made to work five days on the public streets, or pay a fine of five dollars in lieu of said work.</p></blockquote>

<p>Scalia selectively quotes a report from the Commission of the Freedmen&#8217;s Bureau in 1866 to buttress the majority&#8217;s claim Kentucky&#8217;s prohibition of blacks from bearing arms were not in fact <i>&#8220;being prohibited from carrying arms in an organized state militia.&#8221;</i> In essence, the majority wants us to believe Kentucky&#8217;s prohibition against blacks bearing arms had nothing to do with service in the militia, but everything to do with disarming private citizens of their private guns that is said to infringe the Second Amendment. This is a deliberate mischaracterization of the truth.</p>

<p>The law in question specifically was directed at an estimated 25,000 returning black Union soldiers who were returning with their government issued arms - not the banning of private firearms belonging to the public. This attempt to disarm Union soldiers was easily seen as infringing the Second Amendment because they were members of the military - not private civilians. In addition, there were questions over whether Kentucky was acting improper because national law specifically required enlisted militia members to be &#8220;white.&#8221; In 1867, a bill was presented to remove the word &#8220;white&#8221; from the militia laws of the United States.</p>

<p><center> <b>*  *  *  *  *  *  *  *</b></center><br /></p>

<p>There is no evidence to support the majorities&#8217; suggestion that both the Federal Government and States viewed the Second Amendment as an individual right to keep and use weapons outside of the militia as demonstrated below.</p>

<p>In May of 1680, Massachusetts Governor Bradstreet clearly stated what bear arms signified: &#8220;We account all generally from fifteen to fifty that are healthful and strong body&#8217;s, both Householders and Servants fit to bear Arms, except Negros and Slaves, whom we arme not.&#8221; In other words, it is the arming and training of the citizenry who possess this right to &#8220;bear arms&#8221; who are the sole military power of the colony.</p>

<p>Soon after Alaska had been acquired from Russia, Congress in 1868 empowered the President of the United States to not only ban the importation of firearms into Alaska, but also forbid the use of all firearms within all of Alaska. This law was not considered to be infringing the Second Amendment.</p>

<p>Gov. John Page of NH, speaking of the Second Amendment on June 3, 1841, clearly viewed the amendment as having everything to do with bearing arms in the service of a militia:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>The General Government is authorized &#8220;to provide for organizing, arming and disciplining the militia;&#8221; &#8212; and it is very desirable that a new organization should be made. It is believed that we have one and a half million of soldiers enrolled in the militia throughout the Union; of this number we have about thirty thousand in this State, who are called out thrice in each year for inspection, drill and review. This mode of training so numerous a body of soldiers, is attended with a very great aggregate expense, of both time and money, unaccompanied in the estimation of very many of our citizens by an equivalent advantage. The &#8220;<u>right of the people to keep and bear arms</u>,&#8221; is a right dear to every freeman; arms should be in the hands of every citizen of the Republic, who is able to wield them, <u>and it is the duty of Government to prescribe such rules of organization and discipline, as will give those arms the greatest possible efficiency.</u></p></blockquote>

<p>Missouri Governor, Claiborne F. Jackson, declared in 1863 the citizens of Missouri had the right to &#8220;keep and bear arms <i><u>in conformity to the State laws</u></i> and to form a well regulated militia necessary to the security of a free State.&#8221;</p>

<p>St. George Tucker, Lectures on Constitutional Law (1843), said to bear arms is a duty of citizenship like a duty to pay taxes: &#8220;There was no one right which the citizen could exercise, and no one duty which he could be called on to perform, except as a citizen of some particular state. In that character alone could he own real estate, vote at elections, sue or be sued; and in that character alone could he be called on to bear arms, or to pay taxes.&#8221;</p>

<p>Victoria C. Woodhull wrote in 1890: &#8220;A citizen possesses all his rights of citizenship from birth, else he can never possess them legally as I have shown; but some of these rights, <b>like the right to bear arms, he does not exercise till the military age.</b>&#8221;</p>

<p>Harper&#8217;s New Monthly Magazine, November 1874 issue: &#8220;The reason of the feudal inability of women to hold property was that they could not bear arms to defend and maintain it. If, then, women should not have the suffrage because they can not bear arms to enforce the laws, ought they to have property which they can not bear arms to protect?&#8221;</p>

<p>The Act of March 2, 1867, was truly found to infringe the Second Amendment, however, radical Republicans danced around the subject by insisting the rebel States were not legal States (seems rebel States were only considered legal when it came to being forced to ratify the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments.) This Act read in part:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>SEC. 6. And be it further enacted, That all militia forces now organized or in service in either of the States of Virginia, North Carolina, South Carolina, Georgia, Florida, Alabama, Louisiana, Mississippi, and Texas, be forthwith disbanded, and that the further organization, arming, or calling into service of the said militia forces, or any part thereof, is hereby prohibited under any circumstances whatever, until the same shall be authorized by Congress. </p></blockquote>

<p>Why would this Act be universally condemned as violating the Second Amendment, if we are to believe the court majority, the phrase &#8220;bear arms&#8221; was &#8220;unambiguously used to refer to the carrying of weapons outside of an organized militia&#8221;?</p>

<p>Patrick Henry proclaimed: &#8221;The great object is that every man be armed. &#8230; But we have learned, by experience, that, necessary as it is to have arms, and though our Assembly has, by a succession of laws for many years, endeavored to have the militia completely armed, it is still far from being the case. When this power is given up to Congress without limitation or bounds, how will your militia be armed?&#8221; </p>

<p>George Mason said: &#8221;Who are the militia? They consist now of the whole people. &#8230; the militia of the future day may not consist of all classes, high and low, and rich and poor; but they may be confined to the lower and middle classes of the people, granting exclusion to the higher classes of the people. &#8230; Under the present government, all ranks of people are subject to militia duty.&#8221; </p>

<p>Duke of York&#8217;s Laws (1676): &#8220;No man shall be Compeld to bear Armes or wage war by sea or Land, without the bounds and limits of this Government, But from Defensive wars noe man shall be exempted.&#8221;</p>

<p>Speaking of the Federal Second Amendment, prominent Massachusetts politician, Francis Bird, said of the Massachusetts &#8220;right to bear arms for the common defence&#8221; in October of 1853: </p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>&#8220;To keep and bear arms,&#8221;&#8212;not for self-defence, not for &#8220;military instruction,&#8221; not for &#8220;special service in keeping guard;&#8221; but as members of a &#8220;well regulated &#8221; [State] militia. This was the very purpose of adopting this second amendment to the federal constitution&#8212;to put this matter of the independence of the State militia beyond the domain of controversy; and this is the right guaranteed by this amendment,&#8212;the right of the people to bear arms, not for &#8220;making defence under special exigencies,&#8221; which could in no possible manner come under the control of Congress, and needed no guarantee, but to bear them as a part of the military power of the State.</p></blockquote>

<p>On July 2, 1863, U.S. issued orders forbidding citizens of the city of Baltimore and County to keep arms except those with the constitutional right to keep arms being members of a militia. Under the Fifty-first Regiment of Massachusetts Volunteers, assisted by the provost marshal and the chief of police, soldiers in concert with the police went house to house searching for weapons. Muskets, carbines, rifles and revolvers were gathered in considerable quantities.</p>

<p>George S. Boutwell, a significant player in the framing and adoption of both the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments, did not dispute the conclusion the Second Amendment was not applicable towards the States in Presser v. Illinois:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>The claim that the statute was in violation of the Second Amendment to the Constitution was disposed of by the declaration by the Court, that the Second Amendment was a guarantee that nothing should be done by the United States in restraint of the right of the people to keep and bear arms, but that the amendment could not be appealed to as limiting the power of the States.</p>

<p>The teaching in this case seems to justify the following conclusion namely: that as long as a State in the exercise of its power does not interfere with the ability of the United States government to command the military resources of the State, it may exercise jurisdiction over its citizens in the enjoyment of the right of freedom in the matter of keeping and bearing arms.</p></blockquote>

<p>Significantly, Boutwell says Presser v. Illinois is the &#8220;only case of importance which has arisen under&#8221; the Second Amendment. This is significant because there was no right of the citizen to keep and bear arms under the Illinois constitution, only provisions for &#8220;all free male able-bodied persons (negroes, mulattoes and Indians excepted,) residents of the state, between the ages of 18 and 45 years, except such persons as now are or hereafter may be exempted by the laws of the United States or of this state, and shall be armed, equipped and trained as the general assembly may provide by law.&#8221;</p>

<p>Sen. Reverdy Johnson, considered one of the most ablest constitutional lawyers among congressional members involved in the adoption of the Fourteenth Amendment, said as a lawyer during South Carolina&#8217;s Ku Klux Klan trials (1871-1872):</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>What does the Constitution of the United States say about bearing arms? Nothing. What does the fourteenth amendment say upon the same subject? Nothing. The latter is as silent upon the topic as the former, and if the former cause for silence does not cover such a case as this, the latter, for the same reason, does not embrace it. &#8230; Has not the State in a case like that the right to take arms from the militia company? I think there can be no doubt of that. And if the right exists to take the arms out of their hands in such a case as that, then it is because the right to bear arms is not a right given by the Constitution of the United States; but exists under the local law of the State. </p></blockquote>

<p>There perhaps can be no better in-depth analysis by any State Supreme Court on the meaning of the Second Amendment as found in the West Virginia case of State v. Workman:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>The second amendment of our Federal Constitution should be construed with reference to the provisions of the common law upon this subject as they then existed, and in consonance with the reason and spirit of the amendment itself, as defined in what may be called its &#8216;preamble.&#8217; As early as the second year of Edward III., a statute was passed prohibiting all persons, whatever their condition, &#8220;to go or ride armed by night or by day.&#8221; And so also at common law the &#8220;going around with unusual and dangerous weapons to the terror of the people&#8221; was a criminal offence.</p>

<p>The keeping and bearing of arms, therefore, which at the date of the amendment was intended to be protected as a popular right, was not such as the common law condemned, but was such a keeping and bearing as the public liberty and its preservation commended as lawful, and worthy of protection. So, also, in regard to the kind of arms referred to in the amendment, it must be held to refer to the weapons of warfare to be used by the militia, such as swords, guns, rifles, and muskets&#8212;arms to be used in defending the State and civil liberty&#8212;and not to pistols, etc.</p></blockquote>

<p>Judge Advocate General of the Army (C. 1169, May 27, 1910) held the word &#8220;arms&#8221; under the Second Amendment &#8220;refers to the arms of the militia or soldier and does not authorize the carrying of weapons not adapted to use for military purposes.&#8221;</p>

<p>In Alabama the court found Section 4 of the Bill of Rights, &#8220;which provides that &#8216;the people have the right to &#8216;bear&#8217; arms for their defense and security,&#8217; is a limitation on legislative power to enact laws prohibiting the bearing of arms in the militia or any other military organization provided for by law. (Nichols v. State, 4 Ala. App. 115, 58 So. 681 (1912))</p>

<p>Refusal to take the &#8220;oath to bear arms&#8221; always resulted in denial of citizenship in naturalization court. This remained the rule until 1946 when a 5-3 Supreme Court decision struck down the administering of the Arms-Bearing Pledge. Did anyone ever believe new citizens were required to purchase firearms for self-defense at home?</p>

<p>Bishop, Statutory Crimes, §793: &#8220;In reason the keeping and bearing of arms has reference to war and possibly also to insurrections where the forms of war are so far as possible observed. The phrase itself, &#8216;to bear arms,&#8217; indicates as much. The single individual or the unorganized crowd, in carrying weapons, is not spoken of or thought of as &#8216;bearing arms.&#8217; The use of the phrase suggests ideas of a military nature.&#8221;</p>

<p>A.G. Riddle before the House Judiciary Committee, January 11, 1871, remarked:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>Apply the gentleman&#8217;s idea to other provisions of the Constitution; for instance, to this: &#8220;The right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed.&#8221; Would he contend that therefore every new-born baby might at once grasp a musket? This might be constitutional, but it would put the infantry on a war-footing before the commissariat could be mobilized, I fear. (Laughter and applause.) </p></blockquote>

<p>Delegate William Barnes remarked during the Constitutional Convention of the State of California in 1878:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>[I] find in article two a declaration that a well regulated militia, being necessary to the security of free States, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed. Now, we know that this question was considered a very important one in the early organization of the government, and it is no less important now than it was then, <u>because the people had their choice then as they have now between a well organized State militia in the several States and a standing army maintained by the central government</u>, which, under our system of republican institutions, has always been considered an enemy to liberty, and when the people had their choice between maintaining a large standing army, maintained by the General Government as the great armies of Europe arc maintained, at a vast cost to the General Government and to the people, they determined upon the plan which now exists, that is to say, to provide for the organization and equipment of a militia force.</p></blockquote>

<p>And finally, Scalia writes, &#8220;It may be objected that if weapons that are most useful in military service&#8212;M-16 rifles and the like&#8212;may be banned, then the Second Amendment right is completely detached from the prefatory clause. But as we have said, the conception of the militia at the time of the Second Amendment&#8217;s ratification was the body of all citizens capable of military service, who would bring the sorts of lawful weapons that they possessed at home to militia duty.&#8221;</p>

<p>This is an absurd thing to say because it goes against the majorities central holding that reads, in part: &#8220;The Second Amendment protects an individual right to possess a firearm unconnected with service in a militia, and to use that arm for traditionally lawful purposes, such as self-defense within the home.&#8221; Here Scalia says, owning an M-16 is useful in service of the military, and therefore, may be banned, while also saying &#8220;arms&#8221; under the Second Amendment is &#8220;unconnected&#8221; with service in the military.&#8221; </p>

<p>Allow me to add that it is irrelevant whether militia members might had been required to own their own arms or were provided public arms because all able bodied men were compelled to possess these specific arms by State militia laws.</p>

<p>I will quickly close by saying the Second Amendment right to keep and bear arms means only the right of the people under their own State governments shall never be infringed from organizing and maintaining armed militias for the purpose of a collective security for themselves. The word &#8220;arms&#8221; had the universal understanding to mean arms of the militia and not general firearms used in civil society. </p>

<p>For NRA pundits, Heller will be held in the same esteem as Roe v. Wade is to Pro-Choice advocates, and like Roe, deserve to be overturned because neither deserves to be called law. The personal right to keep and use firearms remains where it has always remained - under permissible laws demanded by the people themselves under their own State and local governments.</p>

<p>This after all, is what our Republican form of government is all about.</p>

<p><b>Final Thoughts</b></p>

<p>It is worth considering the purpose behind the Second Amendment along with the nine other amendments adopted. These amendments, in the words of Madison, were &#8220;<i>restrictive &amp; explanatory amendments</i>.&#8221; Madison says, all of these amendments indicated a &#8220;jealousy of the federal powers, and an anxiety to multiply securities against a constructive enlargement of them.&#8221; C.J. Marshal said, &#8220;In almost every convention by which the Constitution was adopted, amendments to guard against the abuse of power were recommended. These amendments demanded security against the apprehended encroachments of the General Government &#8212; not against those of the local governments.&#8221;</p>

<p>Speaking of defending oneself or, ourselves and property, through an armed citizenry is no different then saying the national government defends citizens and property through the military power of the entire member States of the Union in situations of armed invasion by the military establishment of another country. Armed citizens at home are of little use for defending people and property of a State against violence because arms require training, tactics, discipline, communication, etc., to be of any use.</p>

<p>Finally, armed militia&#8217;s can easily exist where firearms at home are outlawed because such weapons can be kept in armories for use by members of the militias, or special militia provisions for members to keep arms at home. I am not advocating gun restrictions no more than I would for laws outlawing owning food; I am just saying public laws over private firearms would have no effect on maintaining an armed militia for the defense of citizens of a State.</p>

<p><br />
Related: <a href="http://federalistblog.us/2009/04/2nd_amendment_and_mass_right.html">Was the Second Amendment Borrowed from the Massachusetts Constitution?</a></p>
]]>
    </content>
</entry>

<entry>
    <title>Gay Marriage and the Equal Protection of the Laws</title>
    <link rel="alternate" type="text/html" href="http://federalistblog.us/2008/06/gay_marriage_and_the_equal_protection_of_the_laws.html" />
    <id>tag:federalistblog.us,2008://2.23</id>

    <published>2008-06-06T23:49:41Z</published>
    <updated>2010-02-07T08:00:27Z</updated>

    <summary>&#8220;[N]o State should deny to any such person any of the rights which it guaranties to all men.&#8221; &#8212;John A. Bingham, March 31, 1871 I generally withhold criticism towards State Supreme Court rulings towards their own laws and Constitution. However,...</summary>
    <author>
        <name>P.A. Madison</name>
        
    </author>
    
        <category term="equal protection" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#category" />
    
        <category term="gay marriage" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#category" />
    
    <category term="california" label="California" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="californiasupremecourt" label="California Supreme Court" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="equalprotectionclause" label="Equal Protection Clause" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="fourteenthamendmenttotheunitedstatesconstitution" label="Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="johnbingham" label="John Bingham" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="law" label="Law" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="samesexmarriage" label="Same-sex marriage" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="supremecourtoftheunitedstates" label="Supreme Court of the United States" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="unitedstatesconstitution" label="United States Constitution" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    
    <content type="html" xml:lang="en" xml:base="http://federalistblog.us/">
        <![CDATA[<p style="font-size: 12px;"><i>&#8220;[N]o State should deny to any such person any of the rights which it guaranties to all men.&#8221; &#8212;John A. Bingham, March 31, 1871</i></p>

<p><br /></p>

<p>I generally withhold criticism towards State Supreme Court rulings towards their own laws and Constitution. However, I will make exception with the recent California Supreme Court ruling striking down the State&#8217;s ban on same-sex marriage because the court majority confined its decision to the challenge under the equal protection of the laws under the State Constitution. </p>

<p>While California&#8217;s equal protection language has been judicially recognized to mean <i>&#8220;substantially the equivalent of the guarantees contained in the Fourteenth Amendment,</i>&#8221; I wonder how many justices on the court actually understand what guarantees the words speak of - and perhaps more importantly for the liberty of the people who cherish self-government - its limits?</p>

<p>One needs to focus on what &#8220;laws&#8221; are being singled out for equal protection, else, any court can assume for itself without consent of the governed to be the final arbitrator of public morality under the ruse of interpreting constitutional provisions far beyond established boundaries between legislative and judicial branches. As it stands now, there is nothing to stop a future court from declaring there is no &#8220;compelling state interest for equal protection purposes&#8221; in banning such marriages as polygamy, incestuous, or even marriage between people and fury animals.</p>

<p>How can the court now say you cannot discriminate between same sexes singularly, but it is OK to discriminate between multiple members of the same sex (wives in polygamy), or perhaps those who may be closely related (incestuous)?</p>
]]>
        <![CDATA[<p>The author of the equal protection clause, John A. Bingham of Ohio, said a half dozen times before and after the adoption of the Fourteenth Amendment that it <i>&#8220;takes from no State any right that ever pertained to it</i>.&#8221; He further pointed out the language does not read no State may deny the equal protection &#8220;<i>of its laws</i>, but <i>of the laws</i>.&#8221; He is of course referring to the laws of due process (law of the land) in the proceedings of justice and not social equality. </p>

<p>Three years after the adoption of the Fourteenth Amendment, Bingham declares what laws deserves equal protection: &#8220;[N]o State should deny to any such person <u>any of the rights which it guaranties to all men.</u>&#8221; What laws do States guarantee to all men post Fourteenth Amendment? The laws of due process in the administration of justice, of course.</p>

<p>Why would any State Supreme Court wish to interpret such an import from the Fourteenth Amendment in such an extreme way as to abridge a reserve right of their State to regulate public morality? Mr. Bingham said there was no more of a &#8220;vital obligation&#8221; of all State legislatures than to &#8220;protect morality through law.&#8221;</p>

<p>States had always before and after the adoption of the Fourteenth Amendment exercised their reserved right in passing laws governing and regulating domestic marriage that included forms, ceremonies and conditions that must be complied with before the contract of marriage became valid by law. Thus, marriage is more than a civil contract, for it can only be entered in a manner recognized by state law, and can only be dissolved in a like manner.</p>

<p>States had also exercised their reserved right to ban certain types of marriages that can be categorized as polygamous, incestuous, or any unnatural marriage which the legislature of a State have declared to be invalid because such marriages were contrary to the policy of its law. </p>

<p>An 1877 Ohio statute provided for the punishment of persons of &#8220;pure white blood&#8221; who intermarry or have carnal intercourse with any Negro or person having a distinct and visible admixture of African blood. How could Ohio or other States do this if the equal protection of the laws prevented them from making such distinction&#8217;s based upon race, or in this case, sex orientation of the parties involved?</p>

<p>The United States Supreme Court found statutes which prohibit intermarriage between different races, or imposes heavier penalties for adultery between different races, did not infringe the Fourteenth Amendment. (Pace v. Alabama, 106 U. S. 583.) Thomas Cooley says the courts upheld such laws because they deprived no citizen of any legal right, privilege or exemption: </p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>Many states prohibit the intermarriage of white persons and negroes; and since the fourteenth amendment this regulation has been contested as the offspring of race prejudice, as establishing an unreasonable discrimination, and as depriving one class of the equal protection of the laws. Strictly, however, the regulation discriminates no more against one race than against another; it merely forbids marriage between the two. Nor can it be said to so narrow the privilege of marriage as practically to impede and prevent it. Race prejudice, no doubt, has had something to do with establishing this law, but it cannot be said to be so entirely without reason in its support as to be purely arbitrary. The general current of judicial decision is, that it deprives a citizen of nothing that he can claim as a legal right, privilege or exemption.</p></blockquote>

<p>Another reason for upholding such laws is because the equal protection of the laws have a specific import and meaning that has nothing to do with general civil or criminal laws of a State. California&#8217;s equal protection of the laws found under Article I, section 7 of its Constitution is, according to John Bingham, the words of the fortieth chapter of the Magna Carta: &#8220;We will sell to no man, we will not deny or delay to any man right or Justice.&#8221;</p>

<p>The insertion of these words into the Magna Charta was intended to fix England&#8217;s custom under King John of bringing gifts or payment to the King in order to obtain justice before his courts, or extorting fines from suitors or causing delay or denial to right of justice. In other words, under the 40th chapter the right to justice was no longer dependent upon the prerogative of anyone but of the law of the land. </p>

<p>Bingham removed all doubt whether the Equal Protection of the Laws dealt solely with the administration of justice in these December 20, 1870 remarks:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>What did this great people proclaim by the adoption of that [fourteenth] amendment, with one unbroken voice, from Maine to California and to Oregon? It was this: that neither the Carolinas, nor Ohio, nor New York, nor Pennsylvania, nor any other State in this Union, shall <b> <u>deny to the chiefest offender</u></b> hitherto against the rights of this people the equal protection of the laws, and especially of the Constitution and of all laws made in pursuance of it; equal protection with the first man in the Republic. In other words, it places Davis and Toombs and Slidell and Benjamin, who were of the architects of that atrocious revolt (civil war), under like protection of the law with Grant and Sherman and Sheridan, wherever they might be in the Republic, thereby proclaiming them citizens of the United States, and as such by the people&#8217;s decree, which no man shall question, entitled to the equal protection of the laws, and that no State should deny to any of them the equal protection of the laws. &#8230; They are thereby assured in the general rights of citizens of the United States, and enabled in everyplace proudly and truthfully to exclaim, &#8220;I, too, <b>though the greatest of offenders against its laws</b>, am a citizen of the Republic.&#8221; </p></blockquote>

<p>Under the definition of &#8220;equal protection of the laws&#8221; under the Civil Rights bill of 1866, a couple, who is denied a marriage license by law on account of their same-sex, cannot claim denial of the equal protection of the laws because they were never denied the &#8220;<b>full and equal benefit of all <u>laws and proceedings</u> for the security of person and property, as is enjoyed by white citizens, and shall be subject to like punishment, pains, and penalties, and to none other.</b>&#8221;</p>

<p>The California Supreme Court suggested in banning same sex-marriage law could run afoul with the full faith and credit and the privileges and immunities clause under the U.S. Constitution. This is simply lame horse manure. The full faith and credit clause deals with court judgments rendered and does not give extra territorial effect to state legislation or court decisions.</p>

<p>No State is under any duty to validate or recognize any marriage it considers unnatural or contrary to its own laws. Further, the privileges or immunities of United States citizens are not a shield against the laws of a State. For example: A State that might provide for anyone to carry concealed weapons will be of little value to someone under the privileges and immunities clause who enters another State with laws against concealed weapons.</p>

<p>Conclusion: California&#8217;s ban of same sex marriages is not contrary to the equal protection of the laws under which the language embodies. If the Supreme Court (State or Federal) wish an amendment they can use to strike down either reserved rights or laws of a State they should insist upon lawmakers to amend the Constitution rather than resort to making up ill-founded judicial remedies out of whole cloth. </p>

<p><br />
Related: <br />
1. <a href="http://federalistblog.us/2009/02/equal_protection_of_the_laws.html">Historical Meaning Behind &#8216;Equal Protection of the Laws&#8217;</a><br />
2. <a href="http://federalistblog.us/2009/04/gay_marriage_iowa_supreme_court.html">Gay Marriage: Iowa Supreme Court Wrong on the Law</a></p>
]]>
    </content>
</entry>

<entry>
    <title>Supreme Fraud: Plyler v. Doe</title>
    <link rel="alternate" type="text/html" href="http://federalistblog.us/2008/03/supreme_fraud_plyler_v_doe.html" />
    <id>tag:federalistblog.us,2008://2.22</id>

    <published>2008-03-25T08:49:10Z</published>
    <updated>2010-01-11T16:48:07Z</updated>

    <summary>Updated 4/4/08 I do not think there is any other single Supreme Court case in which I am asked to comment on more than the case of Plyler v. Doe - especially now with more press attention being devoted to...</summary>
    <author>
        <name>P.A. Madison</name>
        
    </author>
    
        <category term="education" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#category" />
    
        <category term="equal protection" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#category" />
    
    <category term="equalprotectionclause" label="Equal Protection Clause" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="fourteenthamendmenttotheunitedstatesconstitution" label="Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="government" label="Government" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="law" label="Law" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="plylervdoe" label="Plyler v. Doe" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="supremecourtoftheunitedstates" label="Supreme Court of the United States" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="unitedstates" label="United States" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="williamrehnquist" label="William Rehnquist" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    
    <content type="html" xml:lang="en" xml:base="http://federalistblog.us/">
        <![CDATA[<p><i>Updated 4/4/08</i></p>

<p>I do not think there is any other single Supreme Court case in which I am asked to comment on more than the case of Plyler v. Doe - especially now with more press attention being devoted to school overcrowding and the costs associated with teaching non-bona fide resident children belonging to citizens of other nations. I have not devoted any lengthy commentary on this case for the simple reason the four dissenting justices (O&#8217;Conner, Burger, Rehnquist and White) thoroughly highlighted the majorities injustice - though they didn&#8217;t go as far as I am about to. </p>

<p>For example, Chief Justice Burger writing for the minority pointed out:</p>

<blockquote class="main">
<p>The Court&#8217;s holding today manifests the justly criticized judicial tendency to attempt speedy and wholesale formulation of &#8220;remedies&#8221; for the failures &#8212; or simply the laggard pace &#8212; of the political processes of our system of government. The Court employs, and, in my view, abuses, the Fourteenth Amendment in an effort to become an omnipotent and omniscient problem solver. That the motives for doing so are noble and compassionate does not alter the fact that the Court distorts our constitutional function to make amends for the defaults of others.</p>
</blockquote>

<p>Burger&#8217;s view that the majority abused the Fourteenth Amendment is an understatement. The majority rested their ruling on the Fourteenth Amendments Equal Protection Clause (EPC). According to the majority the &#8220;Equal Protection Clause was intended to work nothing less than the abolition of all caste-based and invidious class-based legislation.&#8221; While on its face this sounds to be true, it is important to point out the clause reads &#8220;the equal <b>protection</b> of the laws,&#8221; not the equal enjoyment of any law. </p>
]]>
        <![CDATA[<p>The man responsible for the language, Rep. John A. Bingham of Ohio, pointed out the language says, &#8220;no State may deny the equal protection <b>not of its laws</b>, but of the laws.&#8221; Three years after the adoption of the Fourteenth Amendment, Bingham declares what laws deserves equal protection: &#8220;[N]o State should deny to any such person any of the rights which it guaranties to all men.&#8221; What laws do States guarantee to all men post Fourteenth Amendment? The laws of due process, of course. </p>
<p>I am not aware of any State law that ever guaranteed an education to anyone regardless of his or her legal status.</p>
<p>To give the opinion of the court some semblance validity, the majority had to first paint the EPC as having broad objectives far beyond the historical meaning and source of the text. Justice Brennan (of Roe v. Wade fame) wasted no time in doing just that by quoting Sen. Jacob Howard out of context in bolstering the courts claim the EPC was broad:</p>
<blockquote class="main">
<p>The last two clauses of the first section of the amendment disable a State from depriving not merely a citizen of the United States, but any person, whoever he may be, of life, liberty, or property without due process of law, or from denying to him the equal protection of the laws of the State. This abolishes all class legislation in the States and does away with the injustice of subjecting one caste of persons to a code not applicable to another&#8230; </p>
</blockquote>
<p>Read out of context this would give the court all they needed in striking down a Texas statute that withheld state funds for educating children who have not been legally admitted to the United States. However, let us read the next sentence from Sen. Howard, which Justice Brennan conveniently omitted: </p>
<blockquote class="main">
<p>It prohibits the hanging of a black man for a crime for which the white man is not to be hanged. It protects the black man in his fundamental rights as a citizen with the same shield which it throws over the white man. <u>Ought not the time to be now passed when one measure of justice</u> is to be meted out to a member of one caste while another and a different measure is meted out to the member of another caste, both castes being alike citizens of the United States, both bound to obey the same laws, to sustain the burdens of the same Government, and both equally responsible to justice and to God for the deeds done in the body?</p>
</blockquote>
<p>Sen. Howard obviously is not talking about general civil or municipal laws, but laws for the protection against &#8220;arbitrary spoliation&#8221; in the administration of justice. Over in the House of Representatives, Chairperson of the Reconstruction Committee, Rep. Thaddeus Stevens, explained the EPC in identical terms when introducing it before the House:</p>
<blockquote class="main">
<p>Whatever law punishes a white man for a crime shall punish the black man precisely in the same way and to the same degree. Whatever law protects the white man shall afford &#8220;equal&#8221; protection to the black man&#8230; Now different degrees of punishment are inflicted, not on the magnitude of the crime, but according to the color of the skin. Now color disqualifies a man from testifying in courts, or being tried in the same way as white men.</p>
</blockquote>
<p>Perhaps more damning for the court is the fact Sen. Howard found no authority under the 14th Amendment to impose upon the State of Mississippi the following conditions on February 14, 1870: <i>&#8220;That the constitution of Mississippi shall never be so amended or changed as to deprive any citizens, or class of citizens of the United States, of the school rights and privileges secured by the constitution of said state.</i>&#8221; Senator Howard defended the constitutionality of the bill as &#8220;preserving and upholding a republican form of government&#8221; under the clause that says the &#8220;United States shall guarantee to every State in this Union a Republican Form of Government.&#8221; </p>
<p>Rep. John A. Bingham (OH) stated when he first introduced the words &#8220;equal protection&#8221; on February 28, 1866, said those words already existed under the U.S. Constitution. Where? </p>
<p>Bingham said because the Fifth Amendment adopted the words &#8220;any person&#8221; and not the Magna Charta&#8217;s &#8220;freemen,&#8221; the &#8220;people by their Constitution declared the equality of all men, and by the express limitation forbade the Government of the United States from making any discrimination.&#8221; </p>
<p>Discrimination in what? Discrimination in the laws of due process for the protection against arbitrary denial of life, liberty or property (freehold), i.e., the administration of justice. All very simple and well understood concepts of American and English law.
</p>

<p>In a speech in December of 1870, he said the EPC meant that no State &#8220;<u>shall deny to the chiefest offender</u> hitherto against the rights of the people the equal protection of the laws.&#8221; Three months later in a March 31, 1871 speech, Bingham pointed out the words &#8220;equal protection of the laws&#8221; were the words of the Magna Charta: &#8220;<b>We will sell to no man, we will not deny or delay to any man right or justice.</b>&#8221;
</p>

<p>Bingham of course, is reciting the Charta&#8217;s 40th Chapter, and in another speech approvingly quotes Henry Hallam, whom he called England&#8217;s &#8220;brilliant and profound constitutional historian,&#8221; who said Chapters 39 and 40 of the Magna Charta protected the &#8220;<b><i>personal liberty and property of all freemen, by giving security from arbitrary imprisonment and arbitrary spoliation.</i></b>&#8221; In a March 31, 1871 speech on the Equal Protection of the laws, he added this:</p>

<blockquote class="main">
<p>Surely the gentleman (Farnsworth) then supposed the words &#8220;equal protection of the laws&#8221; were more than a glittering generality; that they were to be enforced to the extent of <u>securing all guarantees of life, liberty, and property</u> as provided by the supreme law of the land, the Constitution of the United States.</p>
</blockquote>

<p>In 1875 when Congress was debating another Civil Rights Act, proponent of the proposed civil rights legislation, Rep. Robert B. Elliott, adopted the same meaning as the Supreme Court had recently given the clause: &#8220;No state shall deny equal justice in its courts.&#8221; No one objected.</p>

<p>In other words, the EPC&#8217;s imported meaning from the Magna Charta means justice must not only be open at all times, but <i>equally</i> administered to all who go before the laws of justice along with equal punishments. This of course explains why both Sen. Howard and Rep. Stevens introduced the clause before Congress the way they had.</p>

<p>After the adoption of the Fourteenth Amendment the United States never claimed any power over the education of aliens within the States. Article VII of the 1868 treaty with China provided that &#8220;Chinese subjects shall enjoy all the privileges of the public educational institutions under the control of the United States which are enjoyed in the respective countries by the citizens or subjects of the most favored nation.&#8221;</p>

<p>This carefully worded language did not grant to Chinese subjects any right to access State schools but only those schools under the control of the United States. An 1894 treaty with Japan touched on the issue of education of aliens, and it did not require compulsory education but instead assured Japanese children would have access to public education if State law provided for the public education of alien children.</p>

<p>In short, the Equal Protection Clause has nothing to do with State laws or policies involving education no more than the fortieth chapter of the Magna Charta ever did. If it had such application, then Bingham would never have approved of Ohio&#8217;s Supreme Court ruling that said the EPC in no way interfered with Ohio&#8217;s school segregation policies.</p>

<p>Plyler v. Doe is pure judicial fraud perpetrated by Great Society regulatory-minded jurists who had ideologically abandoned the notion of a federal government based on limited powers and objectives. Limited and defined constitutional powers have now been replaced with Great Society &#8220;judicial precedent,&#8221; leaving States and communities to be ruled by judicial fiat.</p>

<p><br /></p>

<p>Related: <a href="http://federalistblog.us/2009/02/equal_protection_of_the_laws.html">Historical Meaning Behind &#8216;Equal Protection of the Laws&#8217;</a></p>
]]>
    </content>
</entry>

<entry>
    <title>Does Indiana&apos;s Photo ID Law Violate the Constitution?</title>
    <link rel="alternate" type="text/html" href="http://federalistblog.us/2007/11/indiana_voter_id_law.html" />
    <id>tag:federalistblog.us,2007://2.21</id>

    <published>2007-11-21T10:11:17Z</published>
    <updated>2010-01-11T16:48:06Z</updated>

    <summary>Following the steps of other third parties, Dianne Feinstein (D-Calif.), with Rep. Robert Brady (D-Pa.) and Zoe Lofgren (D-Calif.) have recently filed an amicus curiae brief with the U.S. Supreme Court over Indiana&#8217;s photo-identification requirements for federal elections. The brief...</summary>
    <author>
        <name>P.A. Madison</name>
        
    </author>
    
        <category term="voting rights" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#category" />
    
    <category term="diannefeinstein" label="Dianne Feinstein" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="federalgovernmentoftheunitedstates" label="Federal government of the United States" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="jamesmadison" label="James Madison" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="supremecourt" label="Supreme Court" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="supremecourtoftheunitedstates" label="Supreme Court of the United States" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="unitedstates" label="United States" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="unitedstatescongress" label="United States Congress" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="unitedstatesconstitution" label="United States Constitution" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    
    <content type="html" xml:lang="en" xml:base="http://federalistblog.us/">
        <![CDATA[<p>Following the steps of other third parties, Dianne Feinstein (D-Calif.), with Rep. Robert Brady (D-Pa.) and Zoe Lofgren (D-Calif.) have recently filed an amicus curiae brief with the U.S. Supreme Court over Indiana&#8217;s photo-identification requirements for federal elections.</p>

<p>The brief asserts Indiana State law is inconsistent with, and preempted by, the federal Help America Vote Act of 2002. The Federal statute mandates certain identification requirements only for first-time voters who register to vote by mail. The Federal identification requirements can be satisfied by a number of alternative documents enumerated in the law.</p>

<p>&#8220;The Indiana statute subjects voters to multiple and inconsistent requirements to exercise the right to vote,&#8221; Senator Feinstein said. &#8220;The federal law allows flexibility in establishing voter identification. Indiana&#8217;s statute improperly attempts to trump federal law by restricting that flexibility. As a result, some Indiana voters may be required to show multiple forms of identification in order to comply with the state laws.&#8221;</p>

<p>Rep. Brady fired off the catch-all code word &#8220;disenfranchise&#8221; as the basis for challenging the law.</p>

<p>I fail to see any supported constitutional issues involved with such arguments that could warrant a Supreme Court challenge over a proper exercise of State sovereignty - and where the U.S. Constitution gives Congress no authority to touch. In short, States can trump Dianne and the Federal government all they want when it comes to exercising reserved powers that are neither prohibited to them nor delegated to Congress to legislate on.</p>

<p>Requiring photo ID to vote is simply a voter qualification requirement to exercise the right to vote granted under State law. One will look in vain to find the slightest federal authority over State voter qualifications anywhere in the U.S Constitution. If Congress had magical powers to pass any law they please, under any pretense, then they could had easily passed a law banning &#8220;poll taxes&#8221; without the fuss of amending the Federal Constitution (Amendment XXIV - 1964).</p>

<p>John A. Bingham, primary author of the fourteenth amendments first section said, &#8220;The qualification of electors and the manner of holding or conducting elections are as distinct from each other as light and darkness.&#8221; In other words, the manner of holding elections has nothing to do with the manner of determining who may vote under what qualifications.</p>

<p>The framers of the 15th amendment recognized Congress was powerless over such things as religious tests or property requirements when it came to voter qualifications. There was an attempt to remove State property and educational qualifications under the fifteenth amendment but failed to gain the needed support to pass.</p>

<p>Sen. Jacob M. Howard made the following comments on the right of the States to exercise their full and complete authority over regulating suffrage:</p>

<blockquote class="main"><p>The State of Virginia the moment she is admitted into the Union can by her Legislature, and in perfect consistence with her constitution, propose such an amendment to her local constitution as shall in effect disfranchise nine hundred and ninety-nine out of a thousand of the colored population of that State, by imposing a property qualification upon them, and it would be no violation of the Fifteenth Amendment&#8230;</p>

<p>The States have exercised the power of controlling, regulating, and restricting popular suffrage from the commencement of the State governments down to the present time. It is one of the rights reserved to the States, and is to be exercised in its fullness and in its plenitude without any control on the part of Congress or any question being put by Congress to them.</p></blockquote>

<p>Justice Story said, &#8220;It cannot be said with any correctness that Congress can in any way alter the rights or qualifications of voters.&#8221;</p>

<p>James Madison, Jr. said, &#8220;The right of suffrage is certainly one of the fundamental articles of republican government, and ought not to be left to be regulated by the [Federal] Legislature.&#8221;</p>

<p>Indiana&#8217;s voter photo ID requirement cannot be said to be preempted by federal law because 1) there is no constitutional authority for Congress to pass such a law, and 2) there is no prohibition against the States in passing voter qualifications. In short, unless there is a specific State law involved that says only whites, or males, or folks over the age of 60 may cast a ballot, then there is no U.S. constitutional issue involved.</p>
]]>
        

    </content>
</entry>

<entry>
    <title>Death Penalty for Child Rape Unconstitutional?</title>
    <link rel="alternate" type="text/html" href="http://federalistblog.us/2007/10/death_penalty_for_child_rape.html" />
    <id>tag:federalistblog.us,2007://2.20</id>

    <published>2007-10-18T11:03:54Z</published>
    <updated>2010-01-11T16:48:06Z</updated>

    <summary>Lawyers for Patrick Kennedy, a Louisiana man who received a death sentence for raping a child has petitioned the U.S. Supreme Court to have his case heard before the justices. Kennedy&apos;s legal team wants the court to declare Louisiana&apos;s law...</summary>
    <author>
        <name>P.A. Madison</name>
        
    </author>
    
        <category term="8th amendment" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#category" />
    
    <category term="8thamendment" label="8th amendment" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="cruelandunusualpunishment" label="Cruel and Unusual Punishment" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="rape" label="rape" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    <category term="torture" label="torture" scheme="http://www.sixapart.com/ns/types#tag" />
    
    <content type="html" xml:lang="en" xml:base="http://federalistblog.us/">
        <![CDATA[<p>Lawyers for Patrick Kennedy, a Louisiana man who received a death sentence for raping a child has petitioned the U.S. Supreme Court to have his case heard before the justices. Kennedy's legal team wants the court to declare Louisiana's law allowing the death penalty for child rape unconstitutional.</p>

<p>The petition asks the court to consider whether the Eighth Amendment's Cruel and Unusual Punishment clause permits a state to impose the death penalty for child rape - a punishment usually reserved for those convicted of murder. If this is the case, Kennedy's attorneys ask a second question: Does Louisiana's capital rape statute violates the Eighth Amendment because it does not set clear guidelines for juries as to who is eligible for the death penalty?</p>

<p>There has not been an execution for rape in the United States since 1964, and no one has been executed for such a crime since the death penalty was reinstated in 1976.</p>

<p>Lawyers have petitioned the Supreme Court before (1997) over Louisiana's child rape death penalty law. The court declined to hear the case, resulting in three of the justices - John Paul Stevens, Ruth Bader Ginsburg and Stephen Breyer - releasing a statement that indicated they had reservations about the law. </p>

<p>During the twentieth century, there were at least 14 States found to have had death penalties for the crime of rape: Alabama, Arkansas, Delaware, Georgia, Kentucky (if under age of 12), Louisiana, Maryland, Mississippi, Missouri, South Carolina, Tennessee (if under age of 18), Texas, Virginia, and West Virginia. There were also a number of State statutes that called for life imprisonment in lieu of death. </p>

<p>Whatever reservations these three justices may care to drum up, they cannot argue such laws are &#8220;unusual&#8221; in regards to punishment by death for rape.</p>

<p>The issue is not strictly confined to Louisiana as Texas recently joined six other states (Florida, Louisiana, Montana, Georgia, South Carolina and Oklahoma) with statutes allowing for the death penalty for the rape of a child. </p>

<p>So what does the Eighth Amendment under the United States Constitution have to do with State guidelines of capital punishment or even methods of execution? Amazingly, nothing at all.</p>]]>
        <![CDATA[<p>Why do we find the words &#8220;cruel and unusual punishment&#8221; under the Eighth Amendment? The answer is simply because Congress was empowered to declare punishment for acts of treason, leading to the desire to have a precaution against mimicking England&#8217;s own shocking punishments for treason.</p>

<p>Blackstone described England&#8217;s punishment for treason as &#8220;very solemn and terrible.&#8221; How terrible? The guilty could first be hanged, to then be disemboweled, even if still alive. The head was then cut off and body carved up in four parts for the king to dispose. In some cases, one could be burned alive.</p>

<p>It should be noted the Eighth Amendment has nothing to do with torture but only with punishment. Torture is not used for punishment, but for obtaining confessions (witness against oneself) or information. The Fifth Amendment's no person "shall be compelled (tortured) in any criminal case to be a witness against himself" specifically addresses torture.</p>

<p>Many States adopted their own form of the U.S. Constitution&#8217;s Eighth Amendment because they too had their own laws for treason against the State. State courts and legislatures had since the beginning voided many kinds of punishments as a violation under the States own Eighth Amendment, whether dealing with cruel punishments or excessive fines.</p>

<p>Following the adoption of the Fourteenth Amendment, the court in Kemmler (136 U.S. 436) unanimously held the Eighth Amendment under the United States Constitution in no way restrained the States. There is a very good reason why this is so.</p>

<p>The Fourteenth Amendment is not about federal meddling in the administration of justice within any State, nor is it about forcing federal limitations or norms of justice upon the States. The Fourteenth Amendment is all about redress for the &#8220;willful and corrupt&#8221; (Bingham&#8217;s words) denial or unequal application of State laws in the administration of justice for life, liberty, and property by either the State executive officer or courts.</p>

<p>One might protest by pointing out the Fourteenth&#8217;s first section primary author, John Bingham, proclaimed three years after its adoption that the first eight amendments were never a limitation upon the States until made so by the Fourteenth Amendment. Many conveniently ignore the fact that he also made clear he was only speaking of the privileges and immunities of United States citizens as distinguished from citizens of a State. </p>

<p>He also made clear that if the first eight amendments were to be applicable against the States, it was through the privileges and immunities of United States citizens - not due process.</p>

<p>The distinction between citizens of the United States, and citizens of a State was well known and understood in 1866, yet Mr. Bingham settled upon the language &#8220;citizens of the United States.&#8221; He later declared in January of 1871 (House Report No. 22) that the Fourteenth Amendment neither changed nor modified the relationship between citizens of a State, and citizens of the United States.</p>

<p>In other words, citizens of the States under the Fourteenth Amendment were left exclusively under the protection and laws of the States, and no jurisdiction over matters of administering State laws were surrendered. If this were to be the purpose of the amendment, then all the coercion in the world by radical Republicans would have lead to no more than four States at best ratifying such an amendment.</p>

<p>All Bingham did, as he explained in March of 1871, was imitate Article I, Section 10. Did Congress or the court ever use anything under Article I, Section 10 as a pretext for new expansive federal powers over the States? No because like the Fourteenth&#8217;s first section, merely imposed a limitation upon the States directly, that is, "a law unto itself." It gave the federal judiciary no direct jurisdiction or legislative powers over State enactments that did not clearly touch upon any of the provisions prohibited to the States.</p>

<p>After all, Bingham did state over and over that the Fourteenth Amendment did not change anything in regards to existing rights belonging to the States or the citizens of a State. Citizens have an inviolable right to enact whatever laws they deem fit for their security, and to punish offenders of their laws. </p>

<p>What might constitute cruel and unusual punishment in the ordinary course of imprisoning convicts, or in executing them, only the political societies of the States can judge. The only thing that can be said the Fourteenth Amendment does indeed prohibit in regards to capital punishment - and indeed, any punishments for that matter - is whatever punishments that may be authorized, they must be equally applicable to all, i.e., no caste laws of punishment.</p>

<p>Whatever one might think in regards to the death penalty for rape under State statutes, one thing is certain: The Fourteenth Amendment does not give the federal judiciary any jurisdiction under any pretense to sit in judgment over the validity of any State enacted statute any more than Article I, Section 10 had. The only remote jurisdiction the court could claim under the Fourteenth Amendment is in the event of a &#8220;willful and corrupt disregard&#8221; for the States own laws of due process - or when some State court decides white defendants will be spared execution while blacks will face death (unequal administration of laws).</p>

<p>Until the Fourteenth Amendment is amended to allow for federal review of all State laws in terms of whether they are just and proper, meet federal judicial standards, or whether the law promotes some substantial state interest, the court is just kidding itself in unlawfully extending its jurisdiction where it has long been prohibited.</p>]]>
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